Hello everybody,
first, excuse me for my unperfect english, but I will do my best to be understood
I have a problem with the so-evident link between Indo-european languages and R1a et R1b paternity
Let me sum up the known fact
1/ R1a and R1b splitted about 15.000 or 20.000 years ago, maybe in Central Asia (Altaï or Persia ?)
I can't imagine the R* people had a common language at this time, who would survived more than 10.000 years...
2/ R1a [-M417] (the most important lineage today - about 99% of the R1a) and R1b [-P297] (idem) "found themselves", thousand years after in the Pontic Step, circa 8000 years ago, or maybe they crossed the Caucasus together to install themselves in this new area.
3/ R1a were located in the north of the Pontic Step and R1b in the south. But they together expand around the Pontic Step. R1a first to North and East-Europe, then in a second wave (about 4500 years ago), R1a to Central Asia (then South Asia) and R1b to Balkanic then Central and Western Europe.
That's why Indo-European languages, identified since the end of the XIXth century, are spoken from Bangladesh to Ireland. That seems perfect, doesn't it ?
However, there's something I can't understand.
This beautiful story suppose that R1a and R1b living side to side in the Pontic Step had a common or- at least - related language, after beeing separated 10.000 years ago, during the late paleolithic period. It looks impossible, especially that we could suppose that the vocabulary in the paelolithic period have been weak, and most of the words created in the neolithic period...
Beside, other R1 groups who doesn't participate to this emigration to the Pontic Stepp, doesn't speak proto-indoeuropean language at all (see for example the R1b-V88, migrating from South Caucasus to Levant then to Africa)
Unless R1a or R1b imposed his language to the other group, but without really mixing them, what would seem strange to me.
A third hypothesis could be that R1a and R1B both found in this Pontic Step (or during the crossing of the Caucasus) other groups (I2, J2, G, C ?) and, marrying their women, adopted their language . In this late hypothesis we could deduce that the Proto-Indo-European language have a more complexe origin.
I haven't found any article or research about the question to know how R1a and R1b in the Stepp Pontic had the same language, or a similar language.
Can someone help me with that question ?
first, excuse me for my unperfect english, but I will do my best to be understood
I have a problem with the so-evident link between Indo-european languages and R1a et R1b paternity
Let me sum up the known fact
1/ R1a and R1b splitted about 15.000 or 20.000 years ago, maybe in Central Asia (Altaï or Persia ?)
I can't imagine the R* people had a common language at this time, who would survived more than 10.000 years...
2/ R1a [-M417] (the most important lineage today - about 99% of the R1a) and R1b [-P297] (idem) "found themselves", thousand years after in the Pontic Step, circa 8000 years ago, or maybe they crossed the Caucasus together to install themselves in this new area.
3/ R1a were located in the north of the Pontic Step and R1b in the south. But they together expand around the Pontic Step. R1a first to North and East-Europe, then in a second wave (about 4500 years ago), R1a to Central Asia (then South Asia) and R1b to Balkanic then Central and Western Europe.
That's why Indo-European languages, identified since the end of the XIXth century, are spoken from Bangladesh to Ireland. That seems perfect, doesn't it ?
However, there's something I can't understand.
This beautiful story suppose that R1a and R1b living side to side in the Pontic Step had a common or- at least - related language, after beeing separated 10.000 years ago, during the late paleolithic period. It looks impossible, especially that we could suppose that the vocabulary in the paelolithic period have been weak, and most of the words created in the neolithic period...
Beside, other R1 groups who doesn't participate to this emigration to the Pontic Stepp, doesn't speak proto-indoeuropean language at all (see for example the R1b-V88, migrating from South Caucasus to Levant then to Africa)
Unless R1a or R1b imposed his language to the other group, but without really mixing them, what would seem strange to me.
A third hypothesis could be that R1a and R1B both found in this Pontic Step (or during the crossing of the Caucasus) other groups (I2, J2, G, C ?) and, marrying their women, adopted their language . In this late hypothesis we could deduce that the Proto-Indo-European language have a more complexe origin.
I haven't found any article or research about the question to know how R1a and R1b in the Stepp Pontic had the same language, or a similar language.
Can someone help me with that question ?