spruithean
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So now your theory changes.
Yet, my points still stand. Why do Iranian-speaking populations not plot closely to Northern Europeans on PCAs? Refer to the PCAs (and video) I provided they very much show your theory is still false no matter which way you spin it.
Narasimhan's paper (and several others) argue for no such Indo-Iranian origin in Northern Europe and instead they remain consistent with relevant scholars.
Yet, my points still stand. Why do Iranian-speaking populations not plot closely to Northern Europeans on PCAs? Refer to the PCAs (and video) I provided they very much show your theory is still false no matter which way you spin it.
Narasimhan's paper (and several others) argue for no such Indo-Iranian origin in Northern Europe and instead they remain consistent with relevant scholars.