What does genetics say about the origin of Germanic people?

A Buddha certainly doesn't prove anything but if you also find Indian style of construction or Indian style clothes and accessories in Scandinavian cities and villages, and archeologists and anthropology enthusiasts relate them to Scandinavian ancestral roots, then it can be certainly said that Scandinavians had an Indian culture, the same thing can be said about all other peoples and cultures in the world.

If Germanic culture existed in the north of Europe before 500 BC, there should be at least some evidences about it in the Germanic sources, but we see more than 800 years ago Icelandic historian Snorri Sturluson also says about Asgard: https://pagan.wikia.org/wiki/Asgard "Aesir were "men of Asia", not gods, but the speakers of the original Germanic language, who moved from Asia to the north and intermarried with the peoples already there." And from another side we see several evidences which prove Germanic Asgard is the same ancient land of Asagarta (Hellenized as Zagros) in Iran, Snorri also says "Odin is the chief of Asagarth. On the border of Sweden the Great (Suedin in Mesopotamian sources) is a mountain range (Zagros) running from northeast to southwest. South of it are the lands of the Turks (Seljuks at the time of Snorri's writing), where Odin had possessions."

You certainly live in another paradigm than Spruithean or I do. The development of the Germanic language (like Celtic or Slavic) was a gradual development out of in the `german case the TRB and Single Grave (Bell Beaker) people mix. We have no books nor recordings so this proces is like with every prehistoric language difficult to reconstruct.

As said in the (proto) Germanic mythology there will be corresponding themes with he whole Indo-European world.

But your option of Iranian tribes with a 'Germanic package' neglects the historical developments out of Nordic Bronze age (proto-germanic) to iron age Germanic/Jastorf. Genetically there is also no evidence of your claim. But as Spruithean said you seem to be very biased in this respect. No cool reasonable logic IMO...
 
The fact is I really love to read Germanic mytho-historical sources, I have two sons, one of is Odin and another one is Armin, two Irano-Germanic names.


Yes and Spruithean an I partly originated in exact the same region are in reality hugginn and muginn....they bring the news from the Germanic world ;)
 
spruithean said:
Please? Ha. Read the study I linked it discusses mt-Hg U And specifically U7.

I read it and it says "In conclusion, the Near East is the most likely ancestral homeland of U7." This articel says nothing about Germany and north of Europe but it just mentions some rare subclades of U7 in Mediterranean and Southeast Europe. Logically in 500 BC, people with Haplogroup U7 in Europe could be from nowhere except Iran, look at the map of U7:

xwc4_u7.jpg
 
I read it and it says "In conclusion, the Near East is the most likely ancestral homeland of U7." This articel says nothing about Germany and north of Europe but it just mentions some rare subclades of U7 in Mediterranean and Southeast Europe. Logically in 500 BC, people with Haplogroup U7 in Europe could be from nowhere except Iran, look at the map of U7:

xwc4_u7.jpg

Yeah, but you are ignoring the abstract and the conclusions within as they pertain to the U7 in Near East and Europe:

Human mitochondrial DNA haplogroup U is among the initial maternal founders in Southwest Asia and Europe and one that best indicates matrilineal genetic continuity between late Pleistocene hunter-gatherer groups and present-day populations of Europe. While most haplogroup U subclades are older than 30 thousand years, the comparatively recent coalescence time of the extant variation of haplogroup U7 (~16–19 thousand years ago) suggests that its current distribution is the consequence of more recent dispersal events, despite its wide geographical range across Europe, the Near East and South Asia. Here we report 267 new U7 mitogenomes that – analysed alongside 100 published ones – enable us to discern at least two distinct temporal phases of dispersal, both of which most likely emanated from the Near East. The earlier one began prior to the Holocene (~11.5 thousand years ago) towards South Asia, while the later dispersal took place more recently towards Mediterranean Europe during the Neolithic (~8 thousand years ago).These findings imply that the carriers of haplogroup U7 spread to South Asia and Europe before the suggested Bronze Age expansion of Indo-European languages from the Pontic-Caspian Steppe region.

I will also quote:

In conclusion, the Near East is the most likely ancestral homeland of U7. Our analyses reveal two temporally and geographically distinct signals of U7 expansion that disseminated from this region. The first signal dates shortly after the LGM and this dispersal is responsible for the spread of U7 towards South and Central Asia prior to the Holocene, while the more recent expansion explains its spread in Mediterranean Europe most probably during the early Holocene. These dispersals of hg U7 towards South Asia and Europe preclude any major association of U7 with the putative Bronze Age expansion of the Indo-European language family to these regions.

Do you see what they are saying? They are saying that there are two distinct phases of dispersal, both of which come from the Near East, the earlier one headed toward South Asia 11.5kya and the second one dispersed into the Mediterranean area during the Neolithic 8000 years ago. This is all far older than Indo-Europeans and their migrations during the early stages of the Bronze Age and would seem to fit better with the spread of farming, and we know that farming likely spread out of the Near East. The study discusses these lineages in the context of the spread of farming.

I'm not saying that U7 didn't originate in the Near East, my point is that U7 originated and spread far earlier than Indo-European groups. This is why we must look to the Neolithic and try to understand the population movements and the events leading up to the Iron Age and beyond. You are also ignoring the fact that U7 is practically absent in Europe today, again phylogeny of these U7 haplogroups matter and this is what the study touched on. Besides the Iron Age samples you cite again are Iron Age Hallstatt, Hallstatt was not likely to be Germanic, now was it? How refined were the mtDNA haplogroup calls (was there enough quality genetic material left for in-depth haplogroup analysis) for these princely burials in the south of Germany? We see several Neolithic Farmer associated lineages (both Y-DNA and mtDNA) holding on in post-Bronze Age Europe, to conclude that U7 is a sign of migration from Indo-European speakers from Iran is not viable when the dispersals of U7 "preclude any major association of U7 with the putative Bronze Age expansion of the Indo-European language family".


Logically in 500 BC, people with Haplogroup U7 in Europe could be from nowhere except Iran
No, logically people in 500 BC with this haplogroup would more than likely descend from Neolithic Farmer populations, especially considering the data from this paper I've linked.

This is why you can't ignore everything before the Iron Age and how it pertains to the ethnogenesis of Germanic in Europe, because the culture most likely to be associated with proto-Germanic, Jastorf, shows a direct link to the Nordic Bronze Age. If we see (refer to Eurogenes posts shared earlier by Northener) no major population change (admixture change) in Northern Europe from the Late Neolithic to the Bronze Age that is very telling that there was no Indo-European proto-Germanic migration from Iran, all signs point to proto-Germanic being a development out of Northern Europe.

I should add, the similarities we see in mythology between Indo-European people is simply that, similarities because they are rooted in a common Indo-European ancestral mythology. All Indo-European groups have similar mythos like Divine Twins or Horse Twins, Sky Gods, Storm Gods, etc.
 
Yeah, but you are ignoring the abstract and the conclusions within as they pertain to the U7 in Near East and Europe:
I will also quote:
Do you see what they are saying? They are saying that there are two distinct phases of dispersal, both of which come from the Near East, the earlier one headed toward South Asia 11.5kya and the second one dispersed into the Mediterranean area during the Neolithic 8000 years ago. This is all far older than Indo-Europeans and their migrations during the early stages of the Bronze Age and would seem to fit better with the spread of farming, and we know that farming likely spread out of the Near East. The study discusses these lineages in the context of the spread of farming.
I'm not saying that U7 didn't originate in the Near East, my point is that U7 originated and spread far earlier than Indo-European groups. This is why we must look to the Neolithic and try to understand the population movements and the events leading up to the Iron Age and beyond. You are also ignoring the fact that U7 is practically absent in Europe today, again phylogeny of these U7 haplogroups matter and this is what the study touched on. Besides the Iron Age samples you cite again are Iron Age Hallstatt, Hallstatt was not likely to be Germanic, now was it? How refined were the mtDNA haplogroup calls (was there enough quality genetic material left for in-depth haplogroup analysis) for these princely burials in the south of Germany? We see several Neolithic Farmer associated lineages (both Y-DNA and mtDNA) holding on in post-Bronze Age Europe, to conclude that U7 is a sign of migration from Indo-European speakers from Iran is not viable when the dispersals of U7 "preclude any major association of U7 with the putative Bronze Age expansion of the Indo-European language family".
No, logically people in 500 BC with this haplogroup would more than likely descend from Neolithic Farmer populations, especially considering the data from this paper I've linked.
This is why you can't ignore everything before the Iron Age and how it pertains to the ethnogenesis of Germanic in Europe, because the culture most likely to be associated with proto-Germanic, Jastorf, shows a direct link to the Nordic Bronze Age. If we see (refer to Eurogenes posts shared earlier by Northener) no major population change (admixture change) in Northern Europe from the Late Neolithic to the Bronze Age that is very telling that there was no Indo-European proto-Germanic migration from Iran, all signs point to proto-Germanic being a development out of Northern Europe.
I should add, the similarities we see in mythology between Indo-European people is simply that, similarities because they are rooted in a common Indo-European ancestral mythology. All Indo-European groups have similar mythos like Divine Twins or Horse Twins, Sky Gods, Storm Gods, etc.
As you said U7 is absent in Europe, not just nowadays but also 3,000 or even 6,000 years ago too, we just know 8,000 years ago a rare subclade of this haplogroup existed in the Mediterranean area, we are talking about people who live in the north of Europe, if you believe U7 existed in this region before 500 BC, you should show me your evidences (not what some people guess), otherwise the most possible thing is that this haplogroup came to this region from a land where it existed.
I'm interested to know that in your theory of Germanic origin what the role of Hallstatt culture was, especially if you believe it is a Celtic culture, do you believe Germanic is a mixture of Nordic and Celtic cultures? I think you believe Nordic is actually almost the same as proto-IE, does it mean Germanic sound shifts relate to Celtic language?!
 
Yes and Spruithean an I partly originated in exact the same region are in reality hugginn and muginn....they bring the news from the Germanic world ;)

LOL, with no doubt most of what we know about the Germanic culture are from modern Germanic lands, of course this culture is actually a mixture of Nordic and proto-Germanic cultures, Nordic culture had certainly a longer history in Europe but proto-Germanic one came from Iran. Anyway we know an IE culture came to Scandinavia from the southeast, whether in 500 BC or 1500 BC.
 
LOL, with no doubt most of what we know about the Germanic culture are from modern Germanic lands, of course this culture is actually a mixture of Nordic and proto-Germanic cultures, Nordic culture had certainly a longer history in Europe but proto-Germanic one came from Iran. Anyway we know an IE culture came to Scandinavia from the southeast, whether in 500 BC or 1500 BC.

Ok than greetings to my distant cousin[emoji1309]


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Northener said:
Ok than greetings to my distant cousin
Of course with an intervening time of 2,700 years! In Istanbul Turks and Greeks don't call each other cousin, whereas they had the same culture 500 years ago.
I think Germanic people should be really proud of their culture, they have migrated several times from a land to another land but generally they have never been under domination of others, for about 1,500 years they lived in the west of Iran, all of ancient known empires, such as Sumerian, Akkadian, Assyrian, Babylonian, Elamite, Urartian, ... could never conquer their land, with invasion of Iranian tribes from different directions they had to migrate to Armenia and then Getae (west of Balck sea), about 513 BC Darius the Great attacked to subdue them, as Herodotes says all Thracian tribes in this region gave themselves up to Darius without a struggle but the Getae obstinately defending themselves, Herodotes call them the noblest people in this region, anyway Scythians also invaded from the east and they had to migrate to south Germany and finally as we know they intermarried with Nordic people and created a new kingdom in the north of Europe, a few centuries later ancient Romans also wanted to conquer their land but they also couldn't. After the Hunnic invasion, we also see that Germanic tribes again migrated from a land to another land.
 
Of course with an intervening time of 2,700 years! In Istanbul Turks and Greeks don't call each other cousin, whereas they had the same culture 500 years ago.
I think Germanic people should be really proud of their culture, they have migrated several times from a land to another land but generally they have never been under domination of others, for about 1,500 years they lived in the west of Iran, all of ancient known empires, such as Sumerian, Akkadian, Assyrian, Babylonian, Elamite, Urartian, ... could never conquer their land, with invasion of Iranian tribes from different directions they had to migrate to Armenia and then Getae (west of Balck sea), about 513 BC Darius the Great attacked to subdue them, as Herodotes says all Thracian tribes in this region gave themselves up to Darius without a struggle but the Getae obstinately defending themselves, Herodotes call them the noblest people in this region, anyway Scythians also invaded from the east and they had to migrate to south Germany and finally as we know they intermarried with Nordic people and created a new kingdom in the north of Europe, a few centuries later ancient Romans also wanted to conquer their land but they also couldn't. After the Hunnic invasion, we also see that Germanic tribes again migrated from a land to another land.

It was a greeting with a smiley, because I do believe in a gradual development and mixtures but not in whatsoever tribe that brought in a fullgrown ‘Germanic culture’ package that migrated from west Iran, no evidence for that.

The only phase when Germanic tribes went from Southern Scandinavia and Northern Germany to other parts in Europe was during the early middle ages.


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It was a greeting with a smiley, because I do believe in a gradual development and mixtures but not in whatsoever tribe that brought in a fullgrown ‘Germanic culture’ package that migrated from west Iran, no evidence for that.

The only phase when Germanic tribes went from Southern Scandinavia and Northern Germany to other parts in Europe was during the early middle ages.

Germanic culture should first exist in the north of Europe and then it is gradually developed, there is actually no evidence of its existence in the north of Europe before 500 BC, the same Germanic culture which already exists traces its origin in Asia, in fact according to Germanic sources, all major cultural developments happened in Asgard which was in Asia.
 
I don't know why they don't test for downclades of Persian R1b-L23* so we could discus its relation to European R1b, without this I think we can only speculate! Different theories demand evidences. If R1b-s28 tribes lived in W.Persia so recently then howcome theres none found in the region?
 
I don't know why they don't test for downclades of Persian R1b-L23* so we could discus its relation to European R1b, without this I think we can only speculate! Different theories demand evidences. If R1b-s28 tribes lived in W.Persia so recently then howcome theres none found in the region?

R1b-s28 is an Italo-Celtic haplogroup, of course it is better to say it is an Etruscan haplogroup:

03ac0c477f14fcf4d6f9b75c34256e2a.gif


The fact is that mtDNA haplogroup U7 has been also found in Italy, it is just funny but it is interesting to read what this article says: Mitochondrial DNA Variation of Modern Tuscans Supports the Near Eastern Origin of Etruscans: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1852723/

f4ox_u7.jpg


All aboriginal people in Europe are from Iran but Indo-European people who migrated there are not!!!
 
I just searched about Tuscan language and found that voiceless labiovelar fricative (xʷ) exists in Tuscan phonology, I thought it just existed in proto-Germanic and modern Luri and Kurdish phonologies in the west of Iran: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kurdish_phonology It is possible that proto-Germanic people first migrated to the north of Italy and then Germany, I should research more about it.
 
SORRY! I meant R-U106. If it once lived in Zagros region then we should find so many of its subclades in there!
 
SORRY! I meant R-U106. If it once lived in Zagros region then we should find so many of its subclades in there!

There is a different story, it is certainly possible that subclades of R1b-U106 exist in the east of Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India, ... but it relates to Satem language of Carded Ware culture, especially Indo-Iranian, like subclades of R1a-Z282 which have been found both in Scandinavia and Pakistan, as I said in another thread we know Finnish people called people of Scandinavia as Aryan (Orya) and their land Vaejah (Vuoja). What we read in Avesta about Vaejah (original land of Aryans) can be certainly modern Scandinavia.
 
I just searched about Tuscan language and found that voiceless labiovelar fricative (xʷ) exists in Tuscan phonology, I thought it just existed in proto-Germanic and modern Luri and Kurdish phonologies in the west of Iran: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kurdish_phonology It is possible that proto-Germanic people first migrated to the north of Italy and then Germany, I should research more about it.

This change only took place in the last centuries. It just cannot date to a time when Ronance Tuscan did not even exist, because the entire region still spoke Etruscan. Standard Italian is based on late medieval Tuscan and lacks that feature. You may not want to believe it, but lenition from /k/ to /x/ is an extremely common sound change worldwide, and it did happen in different places in different timeframes, independently.
 
This change only took place in the last centuries. It just cannot date to a time when Ronance Tuscan did not even exist, because the entire region still spoke Etruscan. Standard Italian is based on late medieval Tuscan and lacks that feature. You may not want to believe it, but lenition from /k/ to /x/ is an extremely common sound change worldwide, and it did happen in different places in different timeframes, independently.

As a Persian I myself can't pronounce Luri/Kurdish xʷast "quest, want" correctly, in fact Persians pronounce this word as xast or xuast, the interesting thing is Arabs who live in the southwest of Iran can pronounce this sound correctly, however it doesn't exist in Arabic phonology. I believe if the language of a people is changed culturally (not by a migration), their phonology won't change totally, this is the main reason that we see different Indo-European languages in different lands.
 
It is interesting to know that the earliest known Germanic inscription is Negau helmet which dates back to 450 BC ? 350 BC, it is in a North Etruscan alphabet and has been found in Slovenia. Elder Futhark runes, the oldest form of the runic alphabets, are also commonly believed to originate in the North Etruscan alphabets.

So it should be said that Aesir-worshippers migrated from Asagarta (Asgard/Zagros) to Tuscany in the north of Italia and from this land their culture spread to the north of Europe.
 
A newer study: Mitogenomes from The 1000 Genome Project Reveal New Near Eastern Features in Present-Day Tuscans: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4365045/

"The present study adds further support to previously reported findings suggesting the presence of a significant Near East component in Tuscan mitogenomes, and points to Iran as the region in the Near East providing the main genetic signal to present day Tuscans."
 

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