Generalization can't solve this issue, there are certainly some things which are common in almost all IE cultures, but if you believe for example Germanic and Indo-Iranian progenitor
Mannus and his twin brother
Yima/Ymir exist in other IE cultures, please mention them. Or Iranian allfather
Awtin (Abtin) and Germanic allfather
Wodan (Odin) and his wife
Franak (Frya) and
Frigga (Friyo) (
More info) with the same names exist in other IE cultures, you should talk about them, also the chief gods
Asura/Aesir,
Tir/Tyr, ... these are so important and can fundamentally change my theory.
I'm not a fan of citing Wikipedia, however even a cursory glance at ALL other Indo-European religions reveals parallels between all of the various branches of PIE,
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_mythology, this doesn't not automatically mean that proto-Germanic speakers were from Iran. Cyrus, for the seemingly 1,000,000th time, why do you ignore the fact that there is no evidence for this proposed out of Iran migration for proto-Germanic? Why do Northern European populations (and Bronze Age, Iron Age, etc) plot farther away from Iranian populations? Your constant goalpost shifting is very tiring.
Also, you posted earlier
I agree about what you said about the gestation period of proto-Germanic (2,500 BC - 500 BC) but it reached to the north of Europe through the
Late Hallstatt culture (500 BC).
https://meeting.physanth.org/program/2012/session06/lee-2012-an-ancient-dna-perspective-on-the-iron-age-princely-burials-from-baden-wurttemberg-germany.html
Would you please explain what it means in genetics?
Especially this subclade:
U7b5: Lur2_270/Lur/Iran &
U7b5a: Tor747/German/Germany &
U7b5a1: IrAz_F73/Azari/Iran
Again, we've been over this. A published paper established TWO dispersal events for U7, both of which are BEFORE the Bronze Age. Read the paper again and actually try to understand it in a context outside of your pet theory. Uniparental markers are NOT the sole determinants of a populations history. Why do we not see this Bronze Age/Iron Age Zagros region admixture in Germanic populations or populations preceding Germanic populations (Iron Age Jutland, Bronze Age Scandinavia, etc)?
Being
Celto-Germanic in a genetic sense seems pretty damn quantifiable to me.
This will unfortunately be largely be ignored in favour of a biased pet theory...
I think you don't want to deny that Germanic people are an Indo-European people, do you?
The original land of Indo-Europeans was somewhere around the Caspian sea, like Anatolia, Armenia, Caspian steppe, what if it is proved that this original land was even in Iran, is it an insult?!
The interesting thing is that some of the greatest geneticists are already talking about it, for example David Reich says: "the most likely location of the population that first spoke an Indo-European language was south of the Caucasus Mountains, perhaps in present-day Iran or Armenia, because ancient DNA from people who lived there matches what we would expect for a source population both for the Yamnaya and for ancient Anatolians".
You've misunderstood Northener, yet again. You should read more of what David Reich, David Anthony and several others have to say about the PIE origins and the locations. None of them say that proto-Germanic came from Iran. There is no evidence for your theory and the onus is on you to present any evidence and present it in a way that explains the discrepancies. Can you do that for us?
Forget old theories, geneticists are already talking about Indo-European origin in Iran, it is possible the main haplogroup of Indo-Europeans was neither R1a, nor R1b but J2, so your European haplogroups of aboriginal Europeans probably didn't relate to the original Germanic people.
Uh huh, now we're shifting the haplogroup focus because the others don't quite fit your narrative, ah okay.
which admixtures we would have seen if Cyrus's theories were right? because he says they(Germanics) were unmixed at the time they left Zagros region, so he makes it hard for others to contradict him lol.
We would expect to see Bronze Age or Iron Age Iran components in the autosomal DNA, this would make the PCA charts look very different, we'd see a higher affinity to Near East populations, and we don't see that. I shared a few links to several PCA charts a few posts back. Yes, of course that is his go to answer, because it leaves out the need for a real answer, the complete lack of evidence by saying that they were extremely endogenous lol. The archaeology supports a very different theory to Cyrus' and the genetic data we have so far is rather consistent with the archaeology and the various cultural spheres of prehistoric Europe.
The fact is that I just wanted to know what genetics says about the origin of modern Germanic people. What I know is that a Germanic culture existed in the west of Iran from at least 3rd millinium bc to the first half of the 1st millennium BC, but geneticists should say what happened latter, it is possible that some people from this part of Iran migrated directly to the North Europe or they migrated to another part of Europe, like Tuscany, and from this land the Germanic culture spread to the north of Europe, ...
If you believe that the Germanic culture didn't exist in Iran, you should either prove that Indo-Europeans never migrated to Iran before the 1st millennium BC or those who migrated couldn't be proto-Germanic people. For example you can say for these reasons an Indo-European language couldn't be changed to proto-Germanic in Iran. Why for example the German city of Munich/München is pronounced as Munix/Munxen in Iran, and probably Tuscany?
Germanic culture did not exist in the west of Iran. What is your evidence for this? Where is the autosomal admixture evidence of Bronze Age/Iron Age Iran populations in Bronze Age/Iron Age samples of Northern Europe? You've yet to account for the large discrepancies in your theory, archaeology does not support your theory and neither does genetic data. Hell, even relevant linguists do not support anything remotely close to your theory.