Thousands of villages of coincidence makes sense to you and 2 different waves of different people migrating at different times doesn't?
This is the question that I ask you and others that make conclusive statements, and you actually ask this back to me?
Since you're having difficulties understanding my position, do you think these Slavs had a pact that 1 tribe will occupy only certain regions while the others will occupy others, on top of that 1 tribe will follow their farming lifestyle while the other will continue to be shepherds?
How different were the Serboi from each other according to you?
Remember, Bulgars were not Slavs but adopted Slavic and so did their underlings and slaves. So who was what? That's a question DNA tests cannot answer unless we start having massive ancient samples.
That's the other problem you're not getting, that Slavic migration wasn't the only one. It was the last one and the definitive one. That period is known as the Barbarian Invasions not Slavic Migration/Invasion.
What you have to finally understand is that I'm the only one not making claims, but giving food for thought so that you consider your claims more carefully.
Why would they have to have brother clades in Western and Central Europe? A former minor clade being displaced is illogical?
I think the CTS10228* in France is already surprising enough that we have it, not to mention I2a-Disles.
CTS10228 could have changed locations 13 times, where the 11th time was from Pannonia to Dacia (Celts/Germans), 12th time was from Dacia to the Dnieper-Carpathian area (extremely close to Dacia), and the 13th and final time was when they left for the Balkans and the clade was finally numerous enough to leave people behind which would today show us the high variance. Don't you think this has happened to many clades, especially minor ones that are more likely to disappear?
Thus, my answer that there's inconclusive evidence.
Again, this is what I should be telling you. Random and natural migrations within the same area mix populations up over time and make the world more and more heterogenous, but the division was so extreme that we still have considerably homogenous regions even nowadays in the Balkans, where I2a dominates in some while R1a in others, despite 1500 years of shuffling.
During the Orthodox migration to Žumberak in 1538, general commander Nikola Jurišić mentioned the Vlachs who "in our parts are called as Old Romans" separate from the Serbs and Rascians.[23]
Do you think it's another coincidence that Zumberak has the lowest I2a % in Croatia and then we COINCIDENTALLY have this so-called Orthodox migration who could have brought the levels up to 17% nowadays? It could have been 0-3% and you would have called this another of the thousands examples of founder effect.
I'm not sure I really understand what you're asking. You mean that I believe I2a is the source of what we call today Proto-Balkan autosomal admixture? If that's your question, my answer is "Not at all". Modern Proto-Balkan admixture found in Albanians and Greeks mostly is a local Southern Balkan admix, and we don't know the situation of North-East Balkan during late Iron Age or later.
Like I always say, don't expect Pannonians and Dacians to completely overlap with Albanians and Greeks. That is absurd!
It's also clear that your J1 is a result of Ottoman Sipahis. "Because who else besides the Ottomans came to Balkans for so long?" Case closed, screw Byzantines moving Anatolians, Armenians, Georgians, and other people around. Screw Romans settling Syrian archers in the Northern Balkans and Moesia, screw Phoenicians, and so on.