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About devoicing, I think it is clear that it never happens without any reason, especially when voiced stops (b,d,g) exist in a language, I believe in the phonology of the original language which was spoken in the northeast of Mesopotamia these voiced stops didn't exist, so we see these sound changes in Hittite, proto-Armenian, Akkadian and of course proto-Germanic but aspirated stops (bʰ,dʰ,gʰ) existed and after deaspiration they were changed to voiced stops (b,d,g).
so we see these sound changes in Hittite, proto-Armenian, Akkadian and of course proto-Germanic but aspirated stops (bʰ,dʰ,gʰ) existed and after deaspiration they were changed to voiced stops (b,d,g).
Of course it happens without "any reason". Devocing of voiced consonants has happened in several totally unrelated languages in different continents, as well as many other sound shifts. There are only so much phonemes in human languages, so there can only be so much possible sound shifts, and some of them are much more probable than others due to matters of similar physical realization in the phonological apparatus of the body. There is even convergent evolution in biological living beings, let alone in sound shifts and grammatical changes. Of course they exist whether you want to believe it or not. The science of linguistics has already proven that that phenomenon exists, you can either accept it and become more respectable as far as a scientific analysis of your posts is concerned, or you can reject it and keep yourself in the pseudo-scientific realm of fringe theories.
If you don't think devocing can happen without influence from foreign or substrate languages, see present-day Tuscan Italian. In recent centuries, /k/ became /x/ or /h/ in the Tuscan dialect. Do you think that's because of "Germanic influence" even though actual Germanic influence was much more present in North Italy and even in parts of South Italy? Of course it was not. The bulk of the Germanic migration had already been absorbed and "Italanized" since centuries earlier all over Italy. It just happens that a sound shift occurred. Sound shifts happen all the time in languages. Some of them will involve devoicing or voicing of consonants. These are two of the most common sound changes crosslinguistically.
This thing that you don't know the reason doesn't mean these sound changes happen without any reason, for example /k/ has become /x/ in Iranian languages too, for example Persian oxtapus "octopus" is from Greek oktopous: https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/اختاپوس The reason of this sound change is very clear but when you don't know it, you can't say it has no reason. I think you certainly know the difference between sound change laws and some random sound changes in a language, for example we see t>d sound change in numerous Persian words in the last 2,000 years but it can never be called a sound change law because there are also many words that we don't see this sound change.
Is it possible that an Indo-European people migrated to China and sound changes exactly the same as proto-Germanic ones happened in their language? If it is impossible, please explain why?You're deluded, Cyrus. The fact that sound changes like that happen in different language families, in different times, in different places, in genetically unrelated populations, in totally unconnected cultures/societies obviously points to one evident thing that linguists have found out since more than a century ago: sound changes often happen due to internal dynamics of change that were underlying, latent in the phonology of a language, and which slowly and gradually evolve even in the absence of any major external influence. You just don't want to accept the fact that in fact devoicing of consonants (like /k/ > /x/ or /h/) is actually a very frequent and ordinary change cross-linguistically, and it doesn't need to have anything to do with Iran or the Near East more broadly. The Tuscans do not need to have come from Iran to have experienced exactly that sound change. Too bad, yet another lame argument of yours that has nothing to do with actual scientific knowledge. Go tell an actual professional linguist that sound changes like devoicing of consonants could only happen due to a reason, and that can only be substrate influence of earlier languages. You will be lucky if he/she only laughs at your amateurish proposal.
There's no such a thing as a sound change that is not associated with some sound rule. What may happen is just that a certain sound rule applied to vocabulary only in a specific time (so it didn't affect vocabulary created or borrowed later) and/or only in certain positions of the phoneme in the word, under some specific constraints. Most sound changes are not simply "random", they have a clear explanation of how and why they worked like that. It's not the why that you'd like, because it has to do with phonetic articulation and other linguistic aspects, not the phonology/geography correlations you wished were true (but aren't), but sound changes happen for a reason: a phonological reason. And similar or even identical patterns of sound changes most certainly do not need to happen simultaneously in the very same place.
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