I think we shouldn't imagine that there were strange sound changes in the ancient times, I believe it just related to the phonology of native languages, when you can't pronounce θ, the most possible thing is that you pronounce it as t, the same thing can be said about x > k, q > g, ...
Of course it is possible that the voiced stops (b,d,g) were originally aspirated stops (bʰ,dʰ,gʰ), otherwise it is diffcult to explain how b,d,g were changed to pʰ,tʰ,kʰ in the ancient Greek, unless Anatolian had important role because we know b,d,g didn't exist in Anatolian phonology, like Tocharian.
Of course it is possible that the voiced stops (b,d,g) were originally aspirated stops (bʰ,dʰ,gʰ), otherwise it is diffcult to explain how b,d,g were changed to pʰ,tʰ,kʰ in the ancient Greek, unless Anatolian had important role because we know b,d,g didn't exist in Anatolian phonology, like Tocharian.
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