Does genetics prove Iran/Armenia is the original land of Indo-Europeans?

Would you please tell me your own theory about the language of Gutians and other people who lived in the west of Iran? Armenian, Indo-Iranian, Greek, Slavic, proto-Indo-European, Akkadian, Hurrian, or all languages except proto-Germanic?!
Yes. I’ve told it to you more than once already. Germanic is not in the picture.
There were PPIE there. Possibly around the same time or shortly afterwards Kura-Araxes who I think became Hurro-Urartians. You dismissed this for some reason, even though there’s legitimate speculation there were Hurrian-like people in northern Iran and Kassites may have spoken a Hurro-Urartian language.
I think there might have been some early IE “straggler” language spoken in Iran/Zagros, that could be Euphratic and possibly became Gutian. Or Gutians may not have been IE at all...not enough data to be conclusive.
I think Armenians (Hye tribe) entered the region between 2500-2300 BCE with the Greeks. Greeks went westward. The Armenians stayed in the South Caucasus and would have reached Urmia. There may have been an early Armani tribe which would have been partially Armenian but centum and descended from PPIE and possibly not Steppe-derived. They could have been the Euphratics.
Indo-Iranians entered around 1500 BCE, possibly a bit before. Iranians proper entered sometime between 1400 BCE and 800 BCE.
I don’t see any reason to think Slavic was in the Near East ever. Nor Germanic. We know the Celts came during the Hellenistic period and settled in what is now central Turkey.
Besides Anatolian (but maybe Anatolian), possibly Euphratic (if they existed), possibly Armani (if they existed), and possibly Gutian, all IE languages derived from Steppe-populations who partially descended from Armenian/Georgian-like people from the region of modern-Armenia who migrated north. The respective language families—Celtic, Balto-Slviac, Indo-Iranian, Armenian, Greek, Germanic—derive from dialects formed on the Steppes/North Caucasus that expanded into Eurasia. Indo-Iranian developed in modern Russia/Kazakhstan, likely.

There are many Indo-Iranian languages and there is a record of written Indo-Iranian going back more than 3000 years. It’s pretty easy to establish where they originated from and track them using comparative linguistics and genetics. As a distinct language branch they did not originate in Iran. Neither did Germanic, which we, again, have literally zero evidence for having existed anywhere outside of Europe.
 
The Armani might also have been Steppe-derived Armenian speakers or speakers of another Graeco-Armenian language, if the Graeco-Armenians arrived in the greater Asia Minor region before 2300 BCE.
I certainly think the Graeco-Armenians arrived in the South Caucasus/Asia Minor no later than 2000 BCE though.
 
This is my theory about the major sound changes in Indo-European languages:

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Germanic sound changes clearly show that Iranian, as an Indo-Iranian language, originated in Iran too.
 
Yes. I’ve told it to you more than once already. Germanic is not in the picture.
There were PPIE there. Possibly around the same time or shortly afterwards Kura-Araxes who I think became Hurro-Urartians. You dismissed this for some reason, even though there’s legitimate speculation there were Hurrian-like people in northern Iran and Kassites may have spoken a Hurro-Urartian language.
I think there might have been some early IE “straggler” language spoken in Iran/Zagros, that could be Euphratic and possibly became Gutian. Or Gutians may not have been IE at all...not enough data to be conclusive.
I think Armenians (Hye tribe) entered the region between 2500-2300 BCE with the Greeks. Greeks went westward. The Armenians stayed in the South Caucasus and would have reached Urmia. There may have been an early Armani tribe which would have been partially Armenian but centum and descended from PPIE and possibly not Steppe-derived. They could have been the Euphratics.
Indo-Iranians entered around 1500 BCE, possibly a bit before. Iranians proper entered sometime between 1400 BCE and 800 BCE.
I don’t see any reason to think Slavic was in the Near East ever. Nor Germanic. We know the Celts came during the Hellenistic period and settled in what is now central Turkey.
Besides Anatolian (but maybe Anatolian), possibly Euphratic (if they existed), possibly Armani (if they existed), and possibly Gutian, all IE languages derived from Steppe-populations who partially descended from Armenian/Georgian-like people from the region of modern-Armenia who migrated north. The respective language families—Celtic, Balto-Slviac, Indo-Iranian, Armenian, Greek, Germanic—derive from dialects formed on the Steppes/North Caucasus that expanded into Eurasia. Indo-Iranian developed in modern Russia/Kazakhstan, likely.

There are many Indo-Iranian languages and there is a record of written Indo-Iranian going back more than 3000 years. It’s pretty easy to establish where they originated from and track them using comparative linguistics and genetics. As a distinct language branch they did not originate in Iran. Neither did Germanic, which we, again, have literally zero evidence for having existed anywhere outside of Europe.

Would you please explain about your theory why we see many loanwords from Akkadian (a Semitic language which didn't exist before 2,500 BC) in proto-Germanic?
 
Would you please explain about your theory why we see many loanwords from Akkadian (a Semitic language which didn't exist before 2,500 BC) in proto-Germanic?
Again, I’ve told you this before already.
They didn’t come to Germanic directly!!! The loanwords you’re caught up on are NOT THAT CLOSE and/or THERE ARE NOT THAT MANY OF THEM. They arrived through an intermediary. You’re caught up on like 3 words! There are just as many similarities between Semitic and Polish or Semitic and Celtic, according to that list you linked yesterday...many of them closer than the German equivalents. I was unimpressed by it. Why aren’t you trying to explain Slavic or Celtic as a Middle Eastern or Proto-IE language??? Why focus so heavily on Germanic? Because you read a questionable book and think Kurman and German sound alike?

PPIE was in close contact with (Proto?) Semitic. They were likely neighbors. IE languages (Anatolian, Armenian, Greek, possibly others) have been in the general vicinity/in close contact with Semitic languages since 2300 BCE at the very latest.

Proto-Germanic: European. Sometime after 500 BCE.

Akkadian: Near Eastern. Destroyed around 600 BCE.
 
Armenian language is closer to Balto-Slavic than Indo-Iranian???
Possibly. There’s no real consensus one way or another.

https://www.academia.edu/37844906/Greco-Armenian_The_persistence_of_a_myth

Personally, I think the Graeco-Armenian theory makes the most sense, perhaps deriving from Catacomb. Maybe they were in close contact with Proto-Balto-Slavics and Proto-Indo-Iranians.

The Graeco-Armenian theory is still the most widely popular theory.
 
Eureka! I found it!
my finding will solve the problem with Germanic origin in Europe or Zagros? European posters you believe in Germanics origin in North Europe don't you, well your theory is right they originated in N.Europe as mainstream theory says, yet Cyrus is correct too in pointing numerous evidences of Germanic vocabulary in Semitic languages but how he could be correct too, well when Germanics settled N.Europe from Balkans area then several tribes of them journeyed east to Zagros region too, maybe even Danube delta region too to form future Getae, Thracian tribes too and they left these influences in Mesopotamian regions, east Balkan regions. For lack of Ydna evidences in Middle east of Germanic people my answer is they must have Germanized their surrounding neighbors then those tribes with Germanic language yet majority local genetics settled Zagros region to form today's Lurs for example. My theory has the potential to solve all your problems my friends.

Look ydna haplogroup Q one group of them went east to the Americas another journeyed west to C.Asia, ydna haplogroup N did the same one journeyed west to Europe another journeyed east to East Asia so did the Germanics.

European posters don’t “want” Germanic to be European. There is literally not a single shred of evidence to link Germanic with anywhere other than Europe besides a couple words that sound Iranian (that could be explained a number of ways) and some Semitic loanwords (which exist in many/all IE languages). Think about how many hoops you and Cyrus are having to go through to explain Germanic as being from Iran. It makes no sense. Think about it this way: what would you think if somebody said “the Middle Eastern posters want to prove that Semitic is Middle Eastern”? Wouldn’t you think that’s an absurd accusation? It’s just that the “European” posters who “want” Germanic to be from Europe rely on experts in the fields of linguistics, history, archaeology, and genetics rather than some forum user who discovered a couple similar words and ignored the similarities that exist in other languages. I am less convinced now that Germanics were in the Middle East/Iran than before this thread was started.
 
It is really interesting to read the works of German historical linguist Theo Vennemann, for example look at this one: Athel and its Relatives: Origin and Decline of a Noble Family of Words

About the word athel: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/athel

Etymology 1: from Proto-Germanic, meaning "noble"
Etymology 2: from Semitic, meaning "noble"

And Hannibal, who was a Carthaginian Phoenician, traveled through the Alps.

There are many other, more historically reconcilable explanations for similarities/loans between Germanic and Iranian, and similarities/loans between Germanic and Semitic than Germanic being PIE and coming from Iran. For example, (Pre?)Proto-Germanics being in contact with Proto-Iranians in their Pontic Steppe homeland or Proto-Germanics being in contact with Sarmatians/Scythians or Semitic traders entering Europe during the Greek and Roman Empires.
 
About the word athel: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/athel
Etymology 1: from Proto-Germanic, meaning "noble"
Etymology 2: from Semitic, meaning "noble"
Etymology 1: from Proto-Indo-European “átta”, meaning “father”. Oh look! This form had derivatives in Anatolian, Greek, and Indo-Iranian languages too!
https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/átta Why did you ignore this? (FYI “father” or “husband” is often linked with “master”/“lord”/“ruler”). Look at PIE “poti”, for instance.

Also, “ata” exists in Turkish as “forefather” (example, Ataturk). This is explained as being an Old Turkish word, possibly from Proto-Altaic.
 
European posters don’t “want” Germanic to be European. There is literally not a single shred of evidence to link Germanic with anywhere other than Europe besides a couple words that sound Iranian (that could be explained a number of ways) and some Semitic loanwords (which exist in many/all IE languages). Think about how many hoops you and Cyrus are having to go through to explain Germanic as being from Iran. It makes no sense. Think about it this way: what would you think if somebody said “the Middle Eastern posters want to prove that Semitic is Middle Eastern”? Wouldn’t you think that’s an absurd accusation? It’s just that the “European” posters who “want” Germanic to be from Europe rely on experts in the fields of linguistics, history, archaeology, and genetics rather than some forum user who discovered a couple similar words and ignored the similarities that exist in other languages. I am less convinced now that Germanics were in the Middle East/Iran than before this thread was started.

The fact is there is actually not a single shred of evidence to link modern Hay people to ancient Armenians, the names of Armenians in the Old Persian texts, like Dadarshi, never sound modern Armenian, it is not clear when Hay people migrated to Armenia but it certainly didn't happen before 500 BC. Names of Orontid kings of Armenia are also either Iranian or Urartian, I think modern Armenians came from Balkan after the fall of Achaemenid empire, they were probably some soldiers of Alexander of Macedonia.
 
European posters don’t “want” Germanic to be European. There is literally not a single shred of evidence to link Germanic with anywhere other than Europe besides a couple words that sound Iranian (that could be explained a number of ways) and some Semitic loanwords (which exist in many/all IE languages). Think about how many hoops you and Cyrus are having to go through to explain Germanic as being from Iran. It makes no sense. Think about it this way: what would you think if somebody said “the Middle Eastern posters want to prove that Semitic is Middle Eastern”? Wouldn’t you think that’s an absurd accusation? It’s just that the “European” posters who “want” Germanic to be from Europe rely on experts in the fields of linguistics, history, archaeology, and genetics rather than some forum user who discovered a couple similar words and ignored the similarities that exist in other languages. I am less convinced now that Germanics were in the Middle East/Iran than before this thread was started.

Exactly, apparently extravagant convoluted theories are more important to the narrative of the OP and simple realistic theories with solid evidence backing them are ignored because they don't fit the narrative.

It is really interesting to read the works of German historical linguist Theo Vennemann, for example look at this one: Athel and its Relatives: Origin and Decline of a Noble Family of Words

About the word athel: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/athel

Etymology 1: from Proto-Germanic, meaning "noble"
Etymology 2: from Semitic, meaning "noble"

Theo Vennemann is not a relevant linguist anymore and his Atlantic Semitic theory is largely ignored by relevant modern linguists/scholars. I would take much of what Vennemann says with extremely large grains of salt.

Etymology 1: from Proto-Indo-European “átta”, meaning “father”. Oh look! This form had derivatives in Anatolian, Greek, and Indo-Iranian languages too!
https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/átta Why did you ignore this? (FYI “father” or “husband” is often linked with “master”/“lord”/“ruler”). Look at PIE “poti”, for instance.

Also, “ata” exists in Turkish as “forefather” (example, Ataturk). This is explained as being an Old Turkish word, possibly from Proto-Altaic.

It was ignored because it doesn't fit their pet theory.
 
The fact is there is actually not a single shred of evidence to link modern Hay people to ancient Armenians, the names of Armenians in the Old Persian texts, like Dadarshi, never sound modern Armenian, it is not clear when Hay people migrated to Armenia but it certainly didn't happen before 500 BC. Names of Orontid kings of Armenia are also either Iranian or Urartian, I think modern Armenians came from Balkan after the fall of Achaemenid empire, they were probably some soldiers of Alexander of Macedonia.

That’s actually untrue. Yervand (probably connected to Hittite Aruwanda/Arnuwanda as much as Iranian Arruant, as for the Orontids, they were possibly native Armenian who were propped by the Iranians and who subsequently mixed with Iranians), Arakha, Argisti, Daias, and Arame/u/a all had acceptible Armenian etymologies (all these names besides Daias are still used—not sure how they could sound modern—they’re ancient). Khaldita was probably an Armenian-Urartian cross. Dardarshish is probably Iranian. Genetically Armenians are linked to the native peoples of the region. Linguistically, all major linguists who have studied Armenian suggest Armenians have been in the Armenia-region since at least 1200 BCE, but many researchers, such as Diakonoff, Greppin, Zimansky, Smeed, and I believe Vaux (none Armenian), suggest that Armenian formed in close proximity, and had very early exposure to, Hurro-Urartian and Kartvelian languages. They were certainly were not Grecian or whatever you think (Armenian isn’t even an Apple Language, nor does it use a “Wheel” term). Diakonoff was a proponent of the Balkan theory. The others were either Balkan agnostic or rejected it. Incidentally, according to that Nature article that I linked you (a major, respected peer reviewed publication) that I’m sure you didn’t look at, the Armenian ethnogenesis completed by 1200 BCE so your argument is basically impossible. Additionally, an earlier Armenian presence in supported by Reich, I think Wang, and even our Pip’s research. Like your Germanic “theory”, your reactionary Armenian “theory” is not based on archaeological, historical, or genetic records...at all. Why not read up on the ceramic cultures of Transcaucasia and Eastern Asia Minor during the Bronze Age collapse? Which direction was the ceramic culture migrating? I suppose that these potters were the same Germanics, who had constructed the 3rd millennium Indo-European grave complexes in Armenia, Georgia, and eastern Turkey? And where is the record of Armenians/Hyes in the Balkans? Surely by Alexander’s time there’d be a record of them. That suggestion if yours is just asinine. Also, if you think Greeks were in Iran 10 million years ago or whatever, and Armenians are closest to Greeks linguistically, wouldn’t it stand to reason that Armenians originated in Asia Minor according to your own argument?

We cannot prove that the modern Greeks are Ellenes or Rum or that the Deutsche are Germans or Alemanni or even that modern Persians are connected to ancient Parsi or that anybody in the ancient world was really connected to anybody today at all. Also, there’s no proof of Persians in northern Iran before 600 BCE.
Go to any university, probably even in Iran, and ask the Department of Hisory or Anthropology if they support the Shintashta theory of Indo-Aryan origins. Considering that they probably believe in linguistics, genetics, and archaeology, they’ll tell you yes.

So you’re either a) showing your ignorance now b) showing your anger over your crackpot theory of Germanic Aryan-ness being rejected or c) tr*lling. Or all of the above. Your “theories” (or so-called facts to you) are DOA.

Don’t you think if there were a Germanic/Iranian connection German linguists (highly respected in the fields of linguistics and anthropology) would have established this a long time ago? When your most notable ideological counterpart in terms of history and genetics is Adolf Hitler, I think you might want to reconsider your views.

See, the thing is, most people develop a theory or abandon it when presented with new or legitimate opposing information. You do not. You are not arguing in good faith at all. Your recent responses are testament to it.
I’m out of this thread. There’s no point. This has become a cause that you’re the sole champion for for some reason based not on any knowledge of history, archaeology, genetics, linguistics, or really anything but on faith, feelings, and wishful and wistful dreams.

Sorry to have bruised your ego and nationalistic pride. I just believe in science and not frivolous fantasy.
 
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It was ignored because it doesn't fit their pet theory.
Totally. I just mainly want there to be a record that suggests that the “theories” being posted here are less than certain, despite what some parties associated with this thread may be trying to convince us (because you know, if you repeat something enough, no matter how outlandish/baseless, it makes it true!!!)

I used to read old threads on this board that I’d stumble upon via Google. I don’t want somebody to do that and mistake Iranian=Germanic or Germanic=PIE as a theory that’s really worth any serious consideration.
 
That’s actually untrue. Yervand (probably connected to Hittite Aruwanda/Arnuwanda as much as Iranian Arruant, as for the Orontids, they were possibly native Armenian who were propped by the Iranians and who subsequently mixed with Iranians), Arakha, Argisti, Daias, and Arame/u/a all had acceptible Armenian etymologies (all these names besides Daias are still used—not sure how they could sound modern—they’re ancient). As does Khaldita (as an Armenian-Urartian cross). Dardarshish is probably Iranian. Genetically Armenians are linked to the native peoples of the region. Linguistically, all major linguists suggest Armenians have been there since at least 1200 BCE, but many researchers, such as Diakonoff, Greppin, Zimansky, Smeed, and I believe Vaux (none Armenian), suggest that Armenian formed in close proximity, and had very early exposure to, Hurro-Urartian and Kartvelian languages. They were certainly were not Grecian or whatever you think (Armenian isn’t even an Apple Language, nor does it use a “Wheel” term). Diakonoff was a proponent of the Balkan theory. The others were either Balkan agnostic or rejected it. Incidentally, according to that Nature article that I linked you (a major, respected peer reviewed publication) that I’m sure you didn’t look at, the Armenian ethnogenesis completed by 1200 BCE so your argument is basically impossible. Additionally, an earlier Armenian presence in supported by Reich, I think Wang, and even our Pip’s research. Like your Germanic “theory”, your reactionary Armenian “theory” is not based on archaeological, historical, or genetic records...at all. Why not read up on the ceramic cultures of Transcaucasia and Eastern Asia Minor during the Bronze Age collapse? Which direction was the ceramic culture migrating? I suppose that these potters were the same Germanics, who had constructed the 3rd millennium Indo-European grave complexes in Armenia, Georgia, and eastern Turkey?

We cannot prove that the modern Greeks are Ellenes or Rum or that the Deutsche are Germans or Alemanni or even that modern Persians are connected to ancient Parsi or that anybody in the ancient world was really connected to anybody today at all. Also, there’s no proof of Persians in northern Iran before 600 BCE.
Go to any university, probably even in Iran, and ask the Department of Hisory or Anthropology if they support the Shintashta theory of Indo-Aryan origins. Considering that they probably believe in linguistics, genetics, and archaeology, they’ll tell you yes.

So you’re either a) showing your ignorance now b) showing your anger over your crackpot theory of Germanic Aryan-ness being rejected or c) tr*lling. Or all of the above. Your “theories” (or so-called facts to you) are DOA.

See, the thing is, most people develop a theory or abandon it when presented with new or legitimate opposing information. You do not. You are not arguing in good faith at all. Your recent responses are testament to it.

I’m out of this thread. There’s no point. This has become a cause that you’re the sole champion for for some reason based not on any knowledge of history, archaeology, genetics, linguistics, or really anything but on faith, feelings, and wishful and wistful dreams.

Don’t you think if there were a Germanic/Iranian connection German linguists (highly respected in the fields of linguistics and anthropology) would have established this a long time ago? When your most notable ideological counterpart in terms of history and genetics is Adolf Hitler, I think you might want to reconsider your views.

Sorry to have bruised your ego and nationalistic pride. I just believe in science and not frivolous fantasy.

It really doesn't matter who Armenians or Hay people were, they had almost no role in the history of Middle East, they were actually Sumerians, Akkadians, Gutians, Elamites, Kassites, Hurro-Urartians, Hittites, Medes and Persians who ruled in this region in the ancient times and these people could spread their culture in other lands, not Armenians who probably lived in the city or village of Armi.
 
It really doesn't matter who Armenians or Hay people were, they had almost no role in the history of Middle East, they were actually Sumerians, Akkadians, Gutians, Elamites, Kassites, Hurro-Urartians, Hittites, Medes and Persians who ruled in this region in the ancient times and these people could spread their culture in other land

And Germans. Loads and loads of Germans. Can’t forget about those Ancient Near Eastern Germans!
Do you know how to say “I am Akkadian” in Akkadian?
“Ich bin ein Akkadu.”

not Armenians who probably lived in the city or village of Armi.

Villagers from Armi? But I thought that Armenians came with Alexander 2000 years after Armi?

You’ve managed to turn your own thread into a tr*ll fest. Kudos.
 
And Germans. Loads and loads of Germans. Can’t forget about those Ancient Near Eastern Germans!
Do you know how to say “I am Akkadian” in Akkadian?
“Ich bin ein Akkadu.”



Villagers from Armi? But I thought that Armenians came with Alexander 2000 years after Armi?

You’ve managed to turn your own thread into a tr*ll fest. Kudos.

I'm not a German and there is a huge difference my culture and Germanic culture but we are talking with each other in a Germanic language, they were not Armenians or Indians who migrated from a land to another land and spread their culture in other lands.
 
Theo Vennemann is not a relevant linguist anymore and his Atlantic Semitic theory is largely ignored by relevant modern linguists/scholars. I would take much of what Vennemann says with extremely large grains of salt.
What do you mean by modern linguists/scholars? Those who say earth is from proto-IE *er + th, or athel from proto-IE *atta + l, or probably book from boo+k, hand from han+d, ... ? (They even don't know proto-IE *tt consonant cluster is never changed to /th/ in proto-Germanic).
 
What do you mean by modern linguists/scholars? Those who say earth is from proto-IE *er + th, or athel from proto-IE *ata + l, or probably book from boo+k, hand from han+d, ... ?

I mean people who aren't quacks like Vennemann.
 

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