This paper is not about the history of the Albanians. Can you understand that? It's not hard to understand.
It isn't hard to understand at all. People just seem to be offended by the potential possibility of this Etruscan migrating from Illyrians around the Dalmatian coast. Others turned it into something "Albanian". As an Albanian I take offense to this pointing of fingers. No where in any of his posts was he saying this lineage came from Albania proper or modern Albanians specifically.
He made a logical point stating the obvious; The L283 Etruscan has a 1000ybp TMRCA with the Dalmatian Proto-Illyrian L283, and so, likely migrated from around Dalmatia.
If we are to deal with evidence and facts, than the only evidence we have at the moment is that the only L283 that shares the 1000 year distance with the Etruscan sample is the Proto-Illyrian in Dalmatia.
The whole "Albanians are not even close to Illyrians" nonsense is an argumentative blow that contributes nothing to the point he made, and it certainly does not debunk it.
Iberians and North Italians are not closer and do not have any real significant "Illyrian" ancestry. This is merely similar admixture. The only clear indicator for the migration of a people and their direct paternal relationship, is their Y-DNA and the clade they belong. Ancestry by proxy is just that. Proxy.
The idea that Albanians are not descended from one or more Illyrian tribes around Albania, despite clearly carrying all the major haplogroups found in paleo-west-balkans because of genetic drift is nonsense. Iberians/North Italians don't have the Y-DNA of the Illyrian lineages that Albanians do in either proportion of distribution or diversity.
Denying their connection based on something like changing autosomal DNA and drift is absolutely nonsense and wouldn't take the place of Y-DNA in determining who descended from whom.
He is also right to bring up I2a-Slav, which no one here denies is connected to Slavs, and reinforces it all the time. Yet, we have more ancient DNA for J2b-L283 and its connection to Illyrians/Albanians than we do I2a-Slav, which literally has post-migration medieval samples being used as determining factor.
Why the double standard? Does the idea of admitting Illyrian connection to this ONE specific Etruscan sample which clearly is only 1000 years apart from its parent clade in Dalmatia ruffle feathers?
All it means is this Etruscans earliest paternal ancestor likely split from his Proto-Illyrian ancestor around Dalmatia. Thats the only evidence we have right now. Where is the evidence for all the other scenarios?
Is that so hard to understand?