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Thread: What explains the presence of R1a in central Asia and other non Indo European peoples

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    Y-DNA haplogroup
    R1b U152
    MtDNA haplogroup
    H5

    Ethnic group
    Illyrised Gallo-Roman
    Country: Albania



    What explains the presence of R1a in central Asia and other non Indo European peoples

    Could haplogroup R1a be of Turkic origin?
    Why does it peak among Kyrgyzes. Could R1a-Z93 be a Turkic marker rather than Iranic?
    What about R1b m73?
    Were central Asians Indo Europeans before they became turkified
    It's such a mish mash and so confusing to me to pinpoint which was which.
    What is the true Turkic haplogroup Q? C? N?
    If haplo Q and R are related does this mean that Indo Europeans and proto turkics share a common ancestor.
    What about the ma'lta basal R* mummy. Was he white/oriental

    I'm sorry guys for loading you with questions
    I'm just deeply curious and into those stuff.

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    Y-DNA haplogroup
    R1b U152
    MtDNA haplogroup
    H5

    Ethnic group
    Illyrised Gallo-Roman
    Country: Albania



    Buuuuumpppp

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    Quote Originally Posted by Maciamo View Post
    That's an entirely fake story that has been proven wrong by ancient DNA.


    Quote Originally Posted by shinyDust View Post
    Could haplogroup R1a be of Turkic origin?
    Why does it peak among Kyrgyzes. Could R1a-Z93 be a Turkic marker rather than Iranic?
    That's correct, Turkics have two main branches the European branch the Oghur Turkics and the Asiatic branch the Shaz Turkics





    The European branch is the older and ancestral branch dated to around 2500BC



    Shaz Turkics (R1a-Z93) of Sintashta/Andronovo were the offshoot of the Oghurs (R1a-M417) of Corded Ware



    Turkics ruled South Asia from 500BC with the Yuezhi (Asii/Asena legendary Turkic tribe that Turkics from Scandinavia to China claimed descent from) until the Mughal Empire so that's how R1a became widespread there specially among the elites.



    In Europe during the 5th century BC the Oghur nomads were pushed east by climate change which was drying up the pastures. That didn't stop the Huns/Oghurs from coming back every winter and raping the Dacian women (Baltoslavs) who were settling the region that they left (Zarubintsy).


    "Each year, the Huns came to the Slavs, to spend the winter with them; then they took the wives and daughters of the Slavs and slept with them, and among the other mistreatments [already mentioned] the Slavs were also forced to pay levies to the Huns. The sons of the Huns were raised with the wives and daughters."
    Chronicle of Fredegar



    Now some people want you to believe that every Turkic tribe of antiquity were "Iranics", this websites does a good job exposing their lies and nonsense:
    http://s155239215.onlinehome.us/turk...tSourcesEn.htm

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    Such a load of nonsense... Proto-Turkic language dates to no more than 2500 years ago. aDNA records from the Pontic-Caspian steppe and Central Asia conclusively prove a major change in the genetic makeup of the entire region, starting slowly in the Early Iron Age and accelerating very fast, pulling local peoples eastward toward East Asians and Siberians, roughly from ~2300-2400 YBP onwards. And that's precisely when the Proto-Turkic language is dated as having started diverging in different branches and later different languages. The extensive grammatical and lexical similarities with Proto-Mongolic also obviously point to a profound and prolonged contact with the neighbnoring but distinct language family in Northeast Asia, unless you all mean Proto-Mongolic was also originally spoken in Europe, and the early Turkic loanwords from Indo-Iranian and Old Chinese also point to exactly the same location near the Altai.

    Besides, R1a-M417 is present in many areas that were never known to harbor any Turkic language or even any Turkic linguistic subbstrate, but virtually all Turkic-speaking areas with a lot of R1a-M417 today are known to have had at least some Indo-European speakers in the past. Not to mention the obvious fact that haplogroups may boom via random drift even in just a few centuries, let alone in millennia, and that, of course, people shift their language all the time when a new sociopolitical and cultural dominance appears (and we've seen that clearly in historical times when Turks became the prevalent force in Anatolia). These people must believe that E1b1b-V13 guys had always spoken Indo-European languages and that J1 guys had always spoke Semitic just because that's where the highest frequency of those haplogroups in modern people are found. Such a weak argument.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ygorcs View Post
    Proto-Turkic language dates to no more than 2500 years ago.
    That's based on the assumption that they only came into existence when the Chinese decided to write a text that would survive 2500 years about them.

    Quote Originally Posted by Ygorcs View Post
    major change in the genetic makeup of the entire region, starting slowly in the Early Iron Age and accelerating very fast, pulling local peoples eastward toward East Asians and Siberians
    Your dating is wrong, by the late Bronze Age they were already admixed. Here's the trick, Turks spread Mongolian autosomal admixture all over the Steppe, but they remained R1a males.

    Quote Originally Posted by Ygorcs View Post
    The extensive grammatical and lexical similarities with Proto-Mongolic also obviously point to a profound and prolonged contact with the neighbnoring but distinct language family in Northeast Asia.
    Yes, since 2000BC which is when Andronovo/Turks got to Mongolia. If Andronovo spoke Iranic you would have extensive grammatical and lexical similarities between Proto-Mongolic and Iranic instead.

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