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Thread: the origin of al Andalus

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    the origin of al Andalus

    The best sample of ancient andalusian genetic are the autosomes of 37 individuals from southeast Spain, three from 200 – 400 CE (purple stars), 11 from 400-800 CE (blue stars) and 23 Muslims (green stars) that lived between 1000-1600 CE, adding up 814 autosomes, a number high enough to present a low statistical variance.

    The analyses showed that the old Andalusians had a bigger african admixture than the modern iberian population, being their genetics similar in the antiquity and in the middle ages. This indicates that the moorish presence in Spain precede the Islamic conquest, possibly being of roman or punic origin (in the iron age the Iberian genetics is almost 100% western European)

    In fact, if you translate the ancient Andalusians individuals from the figure number two in the article:

    nihms-1019025-f0001.gif

    to the figure beneath you can see clearly than the sephardic Jews (3), that originates in the same region than the Punics (4), are closer to the old Andalusians (1) than the Moroccan Berbers are (6)

    DEFI.jpg

    Sephardic Jews are not pure, they are mixed with the population (jew or not) of the countries they settled in when expelled from Spain, mostly territories of the Ottoman empire. It can be seen than the sephardic Jews (3) are in the middle way between the Lebanese, Greeks and and Turks (5) and the ancient Andalusians(1). If the modern Sephardics are in the middle way, the simplest mathematics tell us that the original sepharadim should be very close to the old andalusians.


    This is not surprising as both, spanish Muslims and Jews, lived in the same territory in the same epoch, and the most probable is that they shared a common origin: the old Punics or Carthaginians. In fact, in XVI century Spain it was believed that the african moors originated in Phoenicia. Those pagan Phoenicians (or Canaanim, as they called themselves), become Jews, then Muslim and finally many of them become catholic Christians.

    this is coherent with the book by Paul Wexler former professor of Linguistics at Tel-Aviv University. He argued that the sepharadin had an important berber and arab substrat and based his hypotesis in linguistic, but not in genetics.


    Source:
    The genomic history of the Iberian Peninsula over the past 8000 years.



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    Water passed does not move mill

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    1 members found this post helpful.
    Quote Originally Posted by martin chaide View Post
    The best sample of ancient andalusian genetic are the autosomes of 37 individuals from southeast Spain, three from 200 – 400 CE (purple stars), 11 from 400-800 CE (blue stars) and 23 Muslims (green stars) that lived between 1000-1600 CE, adding up 814 autosomes, a number high enough to present a low statistical variance.

    The analyses showed that the old Andalusians had a bigger african admixture than the modern iberian population, being their genetics similar in the antiquity and in the middle ages. This indicates that the moorish presence in Spain precede the Islamic conquest, possibly being of roman or punic origin (in the iron age the Iberian genetics is almost 100% western European)

    In fact, if you translate the ancient Andalusians individuals from the figure number two in the article:

    nihms-1019025-f0001.gif

    to the figure beneath you can see clearly than the sephardic Jews (3), that originates in the same region than the Punics (4), are closer to the old Andalusians (1) than the Moroccan Berbers are (6)

    DEFI.jpg

    Sephardic Jews are not pure, they are mixed with the population (jew or not) of the countries they settled in when expelled from Spain, mostly territories of the Ottoman empire. It can be seen than the sephardic Jews (3) are in the middle way between the Lebanese, Greeks and and Turks (5) and the ancient Andalusians(1). If the modern Sephardics are in the middle way, the simplest mathematics tell us that the original sepharadim should be very close to the old andalusians.


    This is not surprising as both, spanish Muslims and Jews, lived in the same territory in the same epoch, and the most probable is that they shared a common origin: the old Punics or Carthaginians. In fact, in XVI century Spain it was believed that the african moors originated in Phoenicia. Those pagan Phoenicians (or Canaanim, as they called themselves), become Jews, then Muslim and finally many of them become catholic Christians.

    this is coherent with the book by Paul Wexler former professor of Linguistics at Tel-Aviv University. He argued that the sepharadin had an important berber and arab substrat and based his hypotesis in linguistic, but not in genetics.


    Source:
    The genomic history of the Iberian Peninsula over the past 8000 years.

    Interesting analysis, most of it sounds plausible enough to be further investigated. I only have one major doubt: is there any historical evidence of a large-scale conversion of Punic people or Roman Africans (considering that the core of Roman Africa was what was Punic territory before) to Judaism to justify the existence of Punic-like Proto-Sephardim in the Maghreb and later in Iberia? Couldn't it be just that Judaeans and Phoenicians were so similar genetically that a mix of ancient Jews with some Europeans and North Africans (and Punic-descended ones, too) would be similar to Punic people already living in North Africa before?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ygorcs View Post
    Interesting analysis, most of it sounds plausible enough to be further investigated. I only have one major doubt: is there any historical evidence of a large-scale conversion of Punic people or Roman Africans (considering that the core of Roman Africa was what was Punic territory before) to Judaism to justify the existence of Punic-like Proto-Sephardim in the Maghreb and later in Iberia? Couldn't it be just that Judaeans and Phoenicians were so similar genetically that a mix of ancient Jews with some Europeans and North Africans (and Punic-descended ones, too) would be similar to Punic people already living in North Africa before?
    thank you. of course it could be, but if you forget religion and think just on genetics, that doesn't make a big difference.

    As you say it diserves further investigation. The only thing i did was overlap two graphs and look at the result. I have my own theories about christianity but i do not want to contaminate the forum with fringe theories.
    Last edited by martin chaide; 21-01-20 at 11:07.

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    Let's see what's in this sample of Al-Andalus


















    As I see that you like Al-Andalus so much here you have both material to write a book. At the moment you cannot create other kits

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    ty very much!

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    Quote Originally Posted by martin chaide View Post
    ty very much!
    ¿De qué provincia española eres?
    Where are you from, what Spanish province?

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    How much SSA ancestry did the Moors have? I have read that it was less than modern berbers but there also people who say the Moors had a lot of SSA men who contributed to food, architecture and culture.

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    Quote Originally Posted by ratchet_fan View Post
    How much SSA ancestry did the Moors have? I have read that it was less than modern berbers but there also people who say the Moors had a lot of SSA men who contributed to food, architecture and culture.
    What food, architecture and culture came to muslim Spain from sub-Saharan Africa?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Philjames100 View Post
    What food, architecture and culture came to muslim Spain from sub-Saharan Africa?
    I don't think any at all. I think Moors were mostly Berbers with smaller amounts of Arabs. So obviously SSA couldn't have contributed to anything because they weren't present. And the food/architecture/culture the Moors brought to Spain was probably derived in large part from Levantines, Byzantines and Persians. However, Wikipedia has been edited to say there were SSA among them.

    As a large and diffuse ethnic group, the Moors consisted mostly of Berbers from Morocco and Western Algeria, sub-Saharan Africans from Mauritania, Northern Senegal, and Western Mali, Arab Bedouins, and Arab elite mostly from Yemen and Syria. Most writings on Moors applied darkness of skin as a trait for any and every Muslim invader of Europe.[58]
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moors#Population

    Also the typical afrocentrist crap you find on the internet says they contributed to the culture and armies.

    https://www.city-data.com/forum/hist...ors-black.html

    The problem is most people without any understanding of genetics are likely to believe those afrocentrist tales. I actually have a friend who I consider pretty reasonable arguing that people are just trying to deny SSAs their history. Some genetic studies showing Moors as non SSA would be great to argue with him. I think they were probably less SSA before the Arab slave trade.

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    Well Moroccan Neolithic samples are more European-like than modern North Africans.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Philjames100 View Post
    What food, architecture and culture came to muslim Spain from sub-Saharan Africa?
    On a related note, I had the best food I ever ate on my trip to Spain. Granted I haven't been to Italy and France yet so that might be subject to change.

    There does seem to be a goal with making Europeans and their culture more "exotic". I see people attributing the use of sour cream and sauerkraut in Central/Eastern European cuisine to Mongols when there is no evidence that is true and Romans had something similar to sauerkraut. Sour cream probably indigenous to Central/Eastern Europe and not a hard invention at that.

    You see similar things on this website with people proposing Myceneans and Minoans came from Iran or comments on Eurogenes blog saying the Roman Empire brought Levant_N ancestry to Europe when it really didn't;t.

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    1 members found this post helpful.
    One of the better papers I have personally read is the one by Olade et al 2019 cited below. 271 ancient Iberians, 171 are post 2,000 BC. I have always been interested in the Muslim conquest from Arabia as it spread across Roman North Africa. Not to go into a tangential thread but Saint Augustine, a great Latin Rite Doctor of the Church was a Bishop in Carthage in late 4th/5th century AD till his Death in 430 AD. And again, the provinces of Numidia, Carthage, Libya were all part of the jurisdiction of the Church of Rome. So I have read pretty much of all of the writings for the Early Church Fathers, both West and East, and in addition to Saint Augustine, there were others from Roman North Africa that were great early theologians. Saint Cyprian of Carthage, Saint Clement of Alexandria (more Eastern) to name others. So what happened in Iberia shows that the Moorish Invaders into Spain were mostly Berber, with Arabs probably ruling the Caliphate. There is no SSA ancestry in the early Muslim conquest (711 AD in Iberia) and you only see it in 2 of the 24 samples in the 10th to 16th century, and even then very little. The Arab-Muslim conquest swept up from Arabia into the Levant and Persia, then across North Africa. It wasn't until the very late 10th century when the Muslim Caliphate in the Magreb began to trade and have contact with Kingdoms in modern Ghana to Sudan, etc, and that is when you see more trade with Kingdoms there and of course purchasing slaves that were SSA's. I have read estimates that the number of Blacks taken as slaves by the Arab-Muslim slave trade to be between 15 and 20 Million, mostly female, for I guess reasons we all know.

    https://science.sciencemag.org/conte...6432/1230.full

    Still the results by Olade et al 2019 show the North African ancestry pre-10th Century was local Berber ancestry. Of course this refutes the notion of the "Moors" as a Black population that is pushed by the Afro Centrist Black American pseudo Scientist. There is no such thing as a Country called Moor, closest thing is Roman Mauritania (Roman province adjacent to Numidia) and Moor was a collective term used by Christian Europe to describe peoples from the Maghreb all the way into Persia. That is a hell of lot of different ethnic groups right there. The only thing they had in common was religion.

    Asad ibn al-Furat led the "Sacracen" invasion into Sicily in 827 was a Mesopotamian born in what is modern Turkey (Haran) and the army he led was largely from that region (Syria, Lebanon, Iraq) etc. Which kind of goes to what I was saying the term "Moor" is a general or collective term referring the Muslim invaders of Iberia in 711 AD and Sicily in 827 AD as well as periodic raids into Rome and Southern Italy as well that included peoples from a large swath of territory stretching from Maghreb in NW Africa all the way to modern Iran. Anyway, here is Figure 2 from the Olade et al 2019 paper referenced above that lays it out with DNA analysis of 171 ancient Iberia samples that cover the Roman period, the period just before the Muslim invasion all the way up through the 16th century.




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    Quote Originally Posted by Palermo Trapani View Post
    One of the better papers I have personally read is the one by Olade et al 2019 cited below. 271 ancient Iberians, 171 are post 2,000 BC. I have always been interested in the Muslim conquest from Arabia as it spread across Roman North Africa. Not to go into a tangential thread but Saint Augustine, a great Latin Rite Doctor of the Church was a Bishop in Carthage in late 4th/5th century AD till his Death in 430 AD. And again, the provinces of Numidia, Carthage, Libya were all part of the jurisdiction of the Church of Rome. So I have read pretty much of all of the writings for the Early Church Fathers, both West and East, and in addition to Saint Augustine, there were others from Roman North Africa that were great early theologians. Saint Cyprian of Carthage, Saint Clement of Alexandria (more Eastern) to name others. So what happened in Iberia shows that the Moorish Invaders into Spain were mostly Berber, with Arabs probably ruling the Caliphate. There is no SSA ancestry in the early Muslim conquest (711 AD in Iberia) and you only see it in 2 of the 24 samples in the 10th to 16th century, and even then very little. The Arab-Muslim conquest swept up from Arabia into the Levant and Persia, then across North Africa. It wasn't until the very late 10th century when the Muslim Caliphate in the Magreb began to trade and have contact with Kingdoms in modern Ghana to Sudan, etc, and that is when you see more trade with Kingdoms there and of course purchasing slaves that were SSA's. I have read estimates that the number of Blacks taken as slaves by the Arab-Muslim slave trade to be between 15 and 20 Million, mostly female, for I guess reasons we all know.

    https://science.sciencemag.org/conte...6432/1230.full

    Still the results by Olade et al 2019 show the North African ancestry pre-10th Century was local Berber ancestry. Of course this refutes the notion of the "Moors" as a Black population that is pushed by the Afro Centrist Black American pseudo Scientist. There is no such thing as a Country called Moor, closest thing is Roman Mauritania (Roman province adjacent to Numidia) and Moor was a collective term used by Christian Europe to describe peoples from the Maghreb all the way into Persia. That is a hell of lot of different ethnic groups right there. The only thing they had in common was religion.

    Asad ibn al-Furat led the "Sacracen" invasion into Sicily in 827 was a Mesopotamian born in what is modern Turkey (Haran) and the army he led was largely from that region (Syria, Lebanon, Iraq) etc. Which kind of goes to what I was saying the term "Moor" is a general or collective term referring the Muslim invaders of Iberia in 711 AD and Sicily in 827 AD as well as periodic raids into Rome and Southern Italy as well that included peoples from a large swath of territory stretching from Maghreb in NW Africa all the way to modern Iran. Anyway, here is Figure 2 from the Olade et al 2019 paper referenced above that lays it out with DNA analysis of 171 ancient Iberia samples that cover the Roman period, the period just before the Muslim invasion all the way up through the 16th century.



    Thanks. Exactly what I was looking for.

    And 15-20 million slaves? That seems high.

    Besides their religion they had one other thing in common. It seems this term applied to predominantly West Eurasian people not SSA people.

    Also this refutes the claims that North Africa used to be more SSA like (I think we all knew that given the same is true for Egypt).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Philjames100 View Post
    Well Moroccan Neolithic samples are more European-like than modern North Africans.
    Thanks. I'll try to find that paper.

    EDIT: Found it.

    https://www.pnas.org/content/115/26/6774


    Am I reading Panel D correctly? Mota is modeled as mostly Anatolia_N plus the component that peaks in BedouinB/Algeria?

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    The slavery I am talking about is basically over the period starting 1,000 AD well into the 15th/16th century, talking about 500-600 year period. Those are numbers that I have seen estimated. I will see if I can find a reputable citation(s) for this and link it.

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    1 members found this post helpful.
    ratchet fan: Here is a book review article about a book on Arab-Muslim slave trade, the number here is 11 to 14 million, most of the men were made eunuchs, and in general the ratio was female heavy in terms of slaverly. The book and author is in the article.

    https://archive.nytimes.com/www.nyti...04hochsct.html

    A pretty well researched article by Desmond Berg, who I know nothing about, but the article is well written.

    https://sovereignnations.com/2018/04...-trade-africa/


    So maybe 20 million is too high, but 10-15 million seems pretty reliable an estimate.

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    The Berber Garamantes were already raiding sub-Saharan Africa for slaves before 0 BC.

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    Quote Originally Posted by ratchet_fan View Post
    I don't think any at all. I think Moors were mostly Berbers with smaller amounts of Arabs. So obviously SSA couldn't have contributed to anything because they weren't present. And the food/architecture/culture the Moors brought to Spain was probably derived in large part from Levantines, Byzantines and Persians. However, Wikipedia has been edited to say there were SSA among them.



    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moors#Population

    Also the typical afrocentrist crap you find on the internet says they contributed to the culture and armies.

    https://www.city-data.com/forum/hist...ors-black.html

    The problem is most people without any understanding of genetics are likely to believe those afrocentrist tales. I actually have a friend who I consider pretty reasonable arguing that people are just trying to deny SSAs their history. Some genetic studies showing Moors as non SSA would be great to argue with him. I think they were probably less SSA before the Arab slave trade.
    I think you're dismissing the Berber contribution (not Persian, Levantine or "Byzantine" i.e. Graeco-Roman/Eastern Roman) too fast.

    As for SSA there were certainly SSA or heavily SSA-mixed people in some periods of the history of Al-Andalus. The highly sectarian and dogmatic Almoravids conquered much of Northwestern Africa and then Al-Andalus from what is now roughly in Mauritania or even Senegal. Hard to believe the military and political elite of that dynasty had virtually no SSA types. Don't forget the dynasties that ruled both Northwest Africa and Iberia often extended southward very much into lands that have much more SSA admixture. They probably left very little genetic impact in Iberia, most of the migrants to Iberia had already arrived in previous centuries and were mostly Berbers and Arabized Berbers, not even "Arabs proper" or Levantines.


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    Quote Originally Posted by ratchet_fan View Post
    comments on Eurogenes blog saying the Roman Empire brought Levant_N ancestry to Europe when it really didn't;t.
    Are you sure about that? The Roman Imperial and Late Antiquity DNA samples tell another story, and there is substantially more Levantine admixture in modern Sicily and South Italy than in the BA samples from the same regions.

    I think people should strive to not favor either more "exotic" origins for their populations, nor favor more "indigenous" and unadmixed origins for their populations. Just let the evidences speak for themselves.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Philjames100 View Post
    The Berber Garamantes were already raiding sub-Saharan Africa for slaves before 0 BC.
    The Garamantes were a Sahara Desert Berber Tribe in what is Modern Libya, correct? So they would have closer interactions with SSA tribes in what is modern Chad, Sudan and Niger? I would think.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Palermo Trapani View Post
    ratchet fan: Here is a book review article about a book on Arab-Muslim slave trade, the number here is 11 to 14 million, most of the men were made eunuchs, and in general the ratio was female heavy in terms of slaverly. The book and author is in the article.

    https://archive.nytimes.com/www.nyti...04hochsct.html

    A pretty well researched article by Desmond Berg, who I know nothing about, but the article is well written.

    https://sovereignnations.com/2018/04...-trade-africa/


    So maybe 20 million is too high, but 10-15 million seems pretty reliable an estimate.
    Just as a counterpoint to this number, dear friend PTrapani: Brazil received 3.6 million black slaves between 1500 and 1850.




    The Brazilian government's attempt to "whiten" the population marked the 19th century . The government freed African descendants, but did not provide social assistance to former slaves, who were left to fend for themselves. The slave would be replaced by the European immigrant: between 1870 and 1953, about 5.5 million immigrants entered Brazil , among whom there was a majority of Italiansand Portuguese , the government's favorites, as they were white and Latino . [ 61 ]
    The Brazilian government aspired that immigrants should marry mixed-race and black people , to dilute the black race in the Brazilian population. The famous painting "Redenção do Can", made in 1895by Modesto Brocos y Gómez, synthesizes the hovering idea at the time: through miscegenation, Brazilians would become whiter with each generation.
    The mass entry of European immigrants in the South and Southeast of Brazil has changed relative to the country's demographics. In a few decades it was found that the population of "black and mixed race" origin was surpassed by the "white" population. Marriage between European and Brazilian immigrants only changed the phenotype . Genetically, the Brazilian population remains mixed. [ 62 ]
    In the censuses, the majority of the Brazilian population continues to be classified as white (49.9%), a considerable portion as brown (43.2%) and a very small number as black (6.3%).


    European ancestry predominates in the Brazilian population as a whole, in all regions of Brazil, according to the vast majority of all autosomal studies carried out covering the entire population, representing 62% to 77% of the ancestry of the Brazilian population. [ 63 ] [ 64 ] [ 65 ] [ 66 ] [ 67 ] [ 68 ] [ 69 ] The predominance of European ancestry among Brazilians is explained by the constant arrival of Portuguese colonists, since 1500, which multiplied rapidly mainly through miscegenationwith indigenous and African women, [ 53 ] and this colonization decisively influenced the genetic composition of the current Brazilian. [ 37 ]Between 1872 and 1972, more than 5 million immigrants entered Brazil, 70% from Portugal and Italy and the rest mainly from Spain and Germany. These immigrants settled mainly in the South and Southeast regions and genetic studies show that these are the regions with the greatest European genetics in the country. [ 32 ] [ 37 ]
    The arrival of the Portuguese in the current Brazilian territory led to a reduction in the indigenous population, mainly due to contamination by viruses and bacteria to which the Indians had no immunity. [ 70 ] [ 26 ] However, since the beginning of colonization, there was miscegenation between Portuguese men and indigenous women, through the practice of co-mingism, an ancient indigenous practice of incorporating strangers into their community, through the delivery of indigenous girls as wifes. [ 26 ] Nowadays, most Brazilians have some indigenous ancestry, although reduced compared to other countries in Latin America . [ 71 ]This indigenous ancestry is stronger in the Amazon states of the Northern Region, but is present in all other regions of the country. [ 37 ]
    Approximately 4 million sub-Saharan Africans were brought to Brazil as slaves over the course of three centuries. [ 29 ] Although the number of slaves brought to Brazil was large, the internal growth of the black population was very slow. In Brazil, the procreation of slaves was not encouraged, as it was cheaper to bring new slaves (low cost in Africa and high elasticity of supply) than to raise slave children until adolescence (expenses with housing, food, clothing, medicine, etc.). [ 72 ] Furthermore, slaves in Brazil had a very low life expectancy, [ 73 ] [ 53 ]and even free blacks had comparatively lower demographic growth. [ 74 ] Currently, African ancestry is present in all Brazilian regions, with regional variations in intensity. African ancestry is lower than European, but higher than indigenous, in most states. [ 37 ]
    Each Brazilian has a unique proportion of Amerindian, European or African ancestors in their genome , since the level of mixing varies from individual to individual much more than from region to region. [ 28 ]

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    Duarte: Yes, that would be the Transatlantic Slave trade. That is a large number as well, but what often happens in the USA is the Transatlantic Slave trade (European) and its impact today in modern USA politics is always front and center. The Arab-Muslim slave trade started 700 years before the European one and the amount of slaves taken was just as significant. However, the modern USA media does not discuss it nor do many Black Americans discuss it since it would force them to confront, or the ones who embraced say Louis Farrakan's Nation of Islam movement, that the religion of Islam was also imposed on them by an invading Arabs who did enslave untold millions of Blacks from SSA.

    Of course some of the Blacks in SSA embraced Islam, without forced conversion, I am sure, but for the ones who didn't, well then slavery was possible when you were from a rival tribe. Mansa Musa from Mali who lived 1280 to 1337 (his name means conquorer) is estimated today by American Economist from sources like (Forbes, WSJ, etc) to be one of the richest men in the world to have ever lived and if he were alive toay, he would be among top 5 richest living today. He conqoured some 24 other Tribes in SSA and acquired all the Gold he could get and Arab accounts, not European sources, document that on a trip to Mali he brought like 12-15,000 Blacks from other SSA tribes/ethnic groups to be sold. In a discussion about Slavery, etc, I pointed this out to a guy on Youtube onetime and I never heard back from him. It destroys the narrative the Europeans did not have willing participants in SSA when the transatlantic slave trade happened. More to the point, Mansa Musa is someone that there is an extensive historical sources on from Arab-Muslims who he traded with and visited on pilgrimages to Mecca and it is clear evidence of Blacks in SSA enslaving other "Black tribes in SSA", not their own people, and selling them into slavery.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ygorcs View Post
    I think you're dismissing the Berber contribution (not Persian, Levantine or "Byzantine" i.e. Graeco-Roman/Eastern Roman) too fast.

    As for SSA there were certainly SSA or heavily SSA-mixed people in some periods of the history of Al-Andalus. The highly sectarian and dogmatic Almoravids conquered much of Northwestern Africa and then Al-Andalus from what is now roughly in Mauritania or even Senegal. Hard to believe the military and political elite of that dynasty had virtually no SSA types. Don't forget the dynasties that ruled both Northwest Africa and Iberia often extended southward very much into lands that have much more SSA admixture. They probably left very little genetic impact in Iberia, most of the migrants to Iberia had already arrived in previous centuries and were mostly Berbers and Arabized Berbers, not even "Arabs proper" or Levantines.

    Maybe. But the genes don't show much SSA influence (the samples Palermo posted and modern Iberians). You're probably right that Berbers were the main contributors but some of the contributions to food/architecture does indicate there were West Asian influences as well. Either way even if SSA were present it was in small numbers and I'm not seeing their specific contributions to the food, architecture, and cuisine of the region.

  25. #25
    Regular Member Carlos's Avatar
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    26-09-11
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    Country: Spain



    Ancient andalusian NO
    Andalusí for Al Andalus

    Andalusian for Andalusia

    STOP

    Andalusians do not feel that we are heirs nor do we feel a continuity of Al Andalus with our region Andalusia


    A defeat and a victory


    End

    I hope it is clear to you

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