bigsnake49
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That's completely wrong.
This is a direct quote from the abstract of the paper as published in Nature. As in everything he writes, it couldn't be more clear.
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/318862250_Genetic_origins_of_the_Minoans_and_Mycenaeans
So, as I've said dozens of times over the years, whether the Greek speakers came via the Balkans, or from the steppe through the Caucasus and across Anatolia, as with the Drews hypothesis, of course they have some steppe.
Why does it matter which way they came? The Greek language is in the same family as Armenian so the more plausible conclusion is that they lived close to each other. For me the more interesting question is the timing.