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Reading beyond the most sensational headlines that the media will obviously prefer:
"A recent report submitted by the Birbal Sahni Institute of Paleosciences in Lucknow to the ASI had said that there are two C-13 (carbon dating) dates -- 3815 and 3500, with a margin of error of 130 years -- for the Sanauli site. It added, "Carbon dating marks this site as an earliest history of a warrior tribe in the Indian subcontinent (sic)."
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/...ofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
This is actually great news for proponents of the steppe Indo-Aryan expansion into South Asia, South-Central Asia and even the Near East in association with the spread of horse-driven war chariots and the diffusion of steppe ancestry into South Asian. If you consider the datings and their margins of error, they can fit validly in a range from 1370 B.C. (lower end) to 1945 B.C. (upper end). That's almost exactly when many linguists, geneticists and other scholars of ancient historical evidence have always assumed Indo-Aryan diverged definitely from Indo-Iranian as a whole and started spreading to India: roughly 1500 B.C. or a bit later. It all fits together, but I'm sure people who hate this idea or have long dedicated themselves to disproving it will see it under completely distinct lens.
Please read the article, it is important to know where Sanauli is located, as you mentioned "Carbon dating marks this site as an earliest history of a warrior tribe in the Indian subcontinent (sic)", in the first article it is questioned: "How come the Indo-Europeans arriving from central Asia reached Sanauli in western Uttar Pradesh 300 to 500 years before they reached Indus?" In fact this warrior tribe conquered the lands from the south to the north, not vice versa, so their original land couldn't be in Central Asia.
How do they know there were no Indo-Europeans in the Indus Valley or close to it without aDNA samples? There are only a tiny handful of aDNA samples from India before the 1st millennium B.C. They just have no means to affirm that so categorically.
How do they know this warrior tribe was conquering lands from the south to the north when they have just found signs of this population and have barely started to understand the findings, let alone the origins of the people that built it? Sounds like wishful thinking to me at least a priori.
Also, look where Sinauli (Bhagpat) is located. It's very, very close to the highlands where Indo-Aryans are supposed to have started descending toward the lower lands of India after having crossed it or even having lived in the highland valleys there for some time (https://imgur.com/a/GEOTAOf - see map). Again, it all fits the steppe migration theory as it's understood now.
The great advantage of chariots is that they are fast. It only took a few centuries for them to spread from the Urals to China and the Middle East. This study now shows that they reached northern India around the same time.
This chariot was a Solid Wheel Chariot, not a Spoked one, so not very reminescent of Sintashta-Andronovo Horizon. I dont really understand the point of this topic.
Indo-Europeans dont have the monopoly for Warrior or Chariot. There was Chariots in Europe and Mesopotamia before Sintashta, there was Warriors everywhere long times before anything Indo-European.
The found of this artefact doesn't contradict the Indo-European Expansion in Soutn Asia, nor it has to be Indo-European in any way.
Ok, so those chariot-riding warriors who conquered India had solid wheel chariot but those who invaded several centuries later had spoked wheel chariot, is it true?
I think those who invaded later from Central Asia were actually Iranian nomads, like early Indo-Scythians, about the history of spoked-wheel chariots, we read:
We dont have any context, so we dont know much. We barely have any ancient dna from the prehistoric indian subcontinent. The transmission of solid wheeled chariot to the indian subcontinent dont necessarily imply an invasion, it could be cultural transmission through the middle-east -> iran.
Mesopotamia trading with IVC could be an option. Another option could be transmission from central asia, through early migration of eastern europe ( the kind of people that would found Afanasievo ), but there is even least proof for that.
The important thing is to not mingle too much things in the same basket.
Indo-Iranian Languages, linked to Corded-related Cultures, linked to Sintashta, linked to Spoked-Wheeled Vehicules is one thing.
Link every ancient Chariots, or War-like symbolism with Indo-Europeans without clear Archeological / Genetical link is another. Not everything coming from prehistoric Iran or Indian will imply some Indo-European context.
Please read the second article in my first post, there is really nothing which shows Indian culture originated in the Central Asia, the same thing can be said about Iranian culture but there were certainly strong links between Iranian, Central Asian and Eastern European cultures, the important point is that Indo-Iranian culture originated in Indo-Iranian lands (east of Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan and north of India), some people from this region migrated to the Levant and north of Eurasia but the majority of them have always lived in their own lands.
We already have discussed this many times... If you really was that sure about your own hypothesis, you wouldn't spam them everywhere on the internet 24/7.
Reading beyond the most sensational headlines that the media will obviously prefer:
"A recent report submitted by the Birbal Sahni Institute of Paleosciences in Lucknow to the ASI had said that there are two C-13 (carbon dating) dates -- 3815 and 3500, with a margin of error of 130 years -- for the Sanauli site. It added, "Carbon dating marks this site as an earliest history of a warrior tribe in the Indian subcontinent (sic)."
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/...ofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
This is actually great news for proponents of the steppe Indo-Aryan expansion into South Asia, South-Central Asia and even the Near East in association with the spread of horse-driven war chariots and the diffusion of steppe ancestry into South Asian. If you consider the datings and their margins of error, they can fit validly in a range from 1370 B.C. (lower end) to 1945 B.C. (upper end). That's almost exactly when many linguists, geneticists and other scholars of ancient historical evidence have always assumed Indo-Aryan diverged definitely from Indo-Iranian as a whole and started spreading to India: roughly 1500 B.C. or a bit later. It all fits together, but I'm sure people who hate this idea or have long dedicated themselves to disproving it will see it under completely distinct lens.
yes, but the story would alter a bit
todays consensus is that the Indo-Aryans arrived after the abondanment of the IVC cities
these dates suggests that the Indo-Aryanns may have expelled the last people of the IVC
Why does it matter what Indian and Iranian "scholars" believe? The facts disagree with them.
What are these facts, those things which are said by non-scholars who know almost nothing about Indo-Iranian culture?!
I asked about your 'assumed' facts, especially those ones which answer this critique:Kuzmina and Mallory have more knowledge about Indo-Iranian culture in the bottom third of their left pinky than the advocates of an IE origin in India, Iran or wherever have combined.
I asked about your 'assumed' facts, especially those ones which answer this critique:
A Vedic Aryan Homeland in the Steppes? A Critique of the Kurgan Hypothesis
It is really funny that you think some European archeologists know about Indo-Iranian culture more than Indian and Iranian scholars.
Kuzmina is dead but Mallory also talks about the possibility of an IE origin near Iran, read: "Twenty-first century clouds over Indo-European homelands"
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