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    Origin of the Basques

    See:
    https://www.cell.com/current-biology...xPUwkQ.twitter

    "Genetic origins, singularity, and heterogeneity of Basques



    Highlights


    • Clear genetic singularity of Basques is observed at wide- and fine-scale levels
    • Basque differentiation might lie on the absence of gene flow after the Iron Ages
    • Genetic substructure correlated with geography and linguistics is detected


    Summary

    Basques have historically lived along the Western Pyrenees, in the Franco-Cantabrian region, straddling the current Spanish and French territories. Over the last decades, they have been the focus of intense research due to their singular cultural and biological traits that, with high controversy, placed them as a heterogeneous, isolated, and unique population. Their non-Indo-European language, Euskara, is thought to be a major factor shaping the genetic landscape of the Basques. Yet there is still a lively debate about their history and assumed singularity due to the limitations of previous studies. Here, we analyze genome-wide data of Basque and surrounding groups that do not speak Euskara at a micro-geographical level. A total of ∼629,000 genome-wide variants were analyzed in 1,970 modern and ancient samples, including 190 new individuals from 18 sampling locations in the Basque area. For the first time, local- and wide-scale analyses from genome-wide data have been performed covering the whole Franco-Cantabrian region, combining allele frequency and haplotype-based methods. Our results show a clear differentiation of Basques from the surrounding populations, with the non-Euskara-speaking Franco-Cantabrians located in an intermediate position. Moreover, a sharp genetic heterogeneity within Basques is observed with significant correlation with geography. Finally, the detected Basque differentiation cannot be attributed to an external origin compared to other Iberian and surrounding populations. Instead, we show that such differentiation results from genetic continuity since the Iron Age, characterized by periods of isolation and lack of recent gene flow that might have been reinforced by the language barrier."

    So, the rest of Iberia changed, but they did not?


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    In the supplementary info, (Figure S4 part E) Tuscans have the same low Steppe mixture (about 15pc) as Sardinians and apart from a little WHG in Sardinians, sardinians and Tuscans are almost the same while Bergamo Italians are shown with about twice as much Steppe.

    Are Tuscans merely modified Sardinians?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vallicanus View Post
    In the supplementary info, (Figure S4 part E) Tuscans have the same low Steppe mixture (about 15pc) as Sardinians and apart from a little WHG in Sardinians, sardinians and Tuscans are almost the same while Bergamo Italians are shown with about twice as much Steppe.

    Are Tuscans merely modified Sardinians?
    Well, in a way, all Italians, and all Southern Europeans, in fact, are just modified Sardinians. Sardinians are the closest group we have to late Neolithic/Chalcolithic Southern and even Central Europeans.

    I'll have to take a look at the exact analysis; I'm still on the paper. :) 15% Steppe seems very low for Tuscans. One of my closest populations is the Fiorentine Tuscans, and I have 25% steppe.

    Off-hand, Tuscans and northern Italians are quite similar. Tuscans are not genetically Central Italian. Both Northern Italians and Tuscans have lots of EEF (as do Sardinians); it's just that Tuscans have less WHG than Northern Italians. Remember too that Bergamo is pretty far north. There is a cline from there to Toscana.

    I guess you could say that Tuscans are eastern shifted Sardinians, leaning toward the Balkans and Greece, and slightly southern shifted Northern Italians, leaning toward Lazio/Umbria.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vallicanus View Post
    In the supplementary info, (Figure S4 part E) Tuscans have the same low Steppe mixture (about 15pc) as Sardinians and apart from a little WHG in Sardinians, sardinians and Tuscans are almost the same while Bergamo Italians are shown with about twice as much Steppe.

    Are Tuscans merely modified Sardinians?
    Firstable, I don't think Toscana was genetically a compltely homogenous region; but taken at a global level, I doubt Sardinians and Toscans could form an almost single population.

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    Quote Originally Posted by MOESAN View Post
    Firstable, I don't think Toscana was genetically a compltely homogenous region; but taken at a global level, I doubt Sardinians and Toscans could form an almost single population.
    It isn't to this day. Things start to change south of Siena, with Tuscans starting to become more like northern Lazio, and northwest Toscana is more like eastern Liguria and Emilia Romagna.

    I think these authors may have trouble distinguishing between WHG and steppe, which is about 60% EHG of which WHG is the majority component.

    Tuscans do NOT have much if any WHG other than that which is EEF.

    Haak et al graph:


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    Quote Originally Posted by Vallicanus View Post
    In the supplementary info, (Figure S4 part E) Tuscans have the same low Steppe mixture (about 15pc) as Sardinians and apart from a little WHG in Sardinians, sardinians and Tuscans are almost the same while Bergamo Italians are shown with about twice as much Steppe.

    Are Tuscans merely modified Sardinians?
    It's clearly inaccurate, there is nothing that might suggest that Tuscans are so similar to Sardinians. Nothing in academic papers and nothing in private testing. Figure S4 part E is a graph, and if you see Figure S4 part C, Tuscans are never similar to Sardinians. Modern and ancient Western Eurasian samples used in this study, not the Spanish ones I mean, are those already used in numerous papers of the past, Tuscan in this paper is the 8-individuals Tuscan HGDP sample from southern Tuscany according to the Ceph coordinates, just the same used by Haak 2015 posted by Angela.

    PCAs are much more informative, even though 2D, than these models. Genetic studies are plenty of errors, reckless calculations, many of these studies are done by PhD candidates, by novice scholars, and in this paper the focus is on Basques, not on the Tuscans.

    Not the exact thing, in Table S1 for example Tuscans end up with Italian_Bergamo in the gItalian_North and Sardinians are alone in their own cluster.





    Quote Originally Posted by Angela View Post

    Tuscans do NOT have much if any WHG other than that which is EEF.

    Haak et al graph:


    In this case they used LBK_EN as a proxy for EEF and LBK_EN has some hidden WHG. Also one of the two Spanish samples has no WHG.
    Tuscan used by Haak is the Tuscan HGDP as well, the CEPH coordinates point to the territory of the municipality of Gavorrano in the province of Grosseto.

    http://www.cephb.fr/hgdp/main.php




    Quote Originally Posted by MOESAN View Post
    Firstable, I don't think Toscana was genetically a compltely homogenous region; but taken at a global level, I doubt Sardinians and Toscans could form an almost single population.

    Indeed. They are using the usual Tuscan HGDP sample that is present in hundreds of papers. If there was this similarity between Tuscans and Sardinians it would have already emerged over 10 years ago.

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    I have no proof just now, but I even think the EEF elements in both are not exactly the same.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Angela View Post
    See:
    https://www.cell.com/current-biology...xPUwkQ.twitter

    "Genetic origins, singularity, and heterogeneity of Basques



    Highlights


    • Clear genetic singularity of Basques is observed at wide- and fine-scale levels
    • Basque differentiation might lie on the absence of gene flow after the Iron Ages
    • Genetic substructure correlated with geography and linguistics is detected


    Summary

    Basques have historically lived along the Western Pyrenees, in the Franco-Cantabrian region, straddling the current Spanish and French territories. Over the last decades, they have been the focus of intense research due to their singular cultural and biological traits that, with high controversy, placed them as a heterogeneous, isolated, and unique population. Their non-Indo-European language, Euskara, is thought to be a major factor shaping the genetic landscape of the Basques. Yet there is still a lively debate about their history and assumed singularity due to the limitations of previous studies. Here, we analyze genome-wide data of Basque and surrounding groups that do not speak Euskara at a micro-geographical level. A total of ∼629,000 genome-wide variants were analyzed in 1,970 modern and ancient samples, including 190 new individuals from 18 sampling locations in the Basque area. For the first time, local- and wide-scale analyses from genome-wide data have been performed covering the whole Franco-Cantabrian region, combining allele frequency and haplotype-based methods. Our results show a clear differentiation of Basques from the surrounding populations, with the non-Euskara-speaking Franco-Cantabrians located in an intermediate position. Moreover, a sharp genetic heterogeneity within Basques is observed with significant correlation with geography. Finally, the detected Basque differentiation cannot be attributed to an external origin compared to other Iberian and surrounding populations. Instead, we show that such differentiation results from genetic continuity since the Iron Age, characterized by periods of isolation and lack of recent gene flow that might have been reinforced by the language barrier."

    So, the rest of Iberia changed, but they did not?
    NO, NO , NO, the rest of Iberia has hardly changed, the contribution of North Africans is barely 5% in Extremadura and Galicia, and it is especially curious in the case of Galicia, which was never populated by Muslims and yet is the Spanish region with the highest percentage of North African blood. The rest of the Iberian peninsula is very uniform genetically speaking (certainly much more than the Balkans, Italy or Greece) - We Basques are Iberians from the Iron Age descendants of the first Iberian BBs and the rest of Spaniards are like us, except for a small percentage of Romans and Moors in some regions. Of course, that means that Iberians (and Basques especially who have never spoken an Indo-European language) have never been Indo-European, neither we nor our ancestors R1b.P312. Forget the fairy tales they have been telling us for years. By the way, I have read your comments about Italy, the Etruscans were not Indo-European either, and in spite of the Levantines they were very similar to us, they have nothing to do with Anatolia, Levant etc. etc. .... when you want we discuss it calmly.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Gaska View Post
    NO, NO , NO, the rest of Iberia has hardly changed, the contribution of North Africans is barely 5% in Extremadura and Galicia, and it is especially curious in the case of Galicia, which was never populated by Muslims and yet is the Spanish region with the highest percentage of North African blood. The rest of the Iberian peninsula is very uniform genetically speaking (certainly much more than the Balkans, Italy or Greece) - We Basques are Iberians from the Iron Age descendants of the first Iberian BBs and the rest of Spaniards are like us, except for a small percentage of Romans and Moors in some regions. Of course, that means that Iberians (and Basques especially who have never spoken an Indo-European language) have never been Indo-European, neither we nor our ancestors R1b.P312. Forget the fairy tales they have been telling us for years. By the way, I have read your comments about Italy, the Etruscans were not Indo-European either, and in spite of the Levantines they were very similar to us, they have nothing to do with Anatolia, Levant etc. etc. .... when you want we discuss it calmly.
    Never said that Basques and Sardinians are the same. Why are you bringing it up?

    Basques and "Iberians" are different; not grossly different, but different. The difference has to be post Iron Age.

    As for Indo-Europeans, I'm not going to re-debate Olalde et al. Indo-European speaking Beakers invaded Iberia, leaving their R1b lineage behind them and their autosomes as well. That R1b is thousands of years younger than the R1b you're discussing, and came from the East. The Basques, like the Etruscans, are an example of Indo-European men adopting the language of their EEF wives.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Angela View Post
    Never said that Basques and Sardinians are the same. Why are you bringing it up?

    Basques and "Iberians" are different; not grossly different, but different. The difference has to be post Iron Age.

    As for Indo-Europeans, I'm not going to re-debate Olalde et al. Indo-European speaking Beakers invaded Iberia, leaving their R1b lineage behind them and their autosomes as well. That R1b is thousands of years younger than the R1b you're discussing, and came from the East. The Basques, like the Etruscans, are an example of Indo-European men adopting the language of their EEF wives.
    In a previous comment you said-"Well, in a way, all Italians, and all Southern Europeans, in fact, are just modified Sardinians"

    and I simply say that Sardinians and Basques (and the rest of Spaniards) have very different genetic histories in spite of sharing a high percentage of EEF.

    If you refer to the Iberian peoples that inhabited Iberia at the arrival of the Romans, they were not different from the Basques, they were exactly the same (both in their uniparental markers and in their autosomal composition), that is to say, the Basques are Iberians who have kept their language despite the conquest. If when you say Iberians, you mean the current Spaniards, it is true that some regions of Spain are very similar to the Basques (Castile, Aragon, and the entire Mediterranean coast) and that in some regions such as Galicia, Extremadura are somewhat different because of the Roman and Muslim conquest.

    As for "Indoeuropeans", I am fine with you not wanting to debate, but you will understand that this explanation of R1b men from the steppes adopting the language of their women is simply speculation with little scientific basis. Because in any case, not only the Basque R1b men changed their language but all the historical Iberian peoples of the peninsula did it (Andalusia, Murcia, Valencia, Catalonia, Aragon, Pyrenees, large areas of Castile, Navarra, Basque Country and the south of France up to Herault, including Aquitaine and Occitania), it would be the first time in the history of mankind that conquerors did not impose their culture and language on a conquered people.

    Regarding the etruscans, we have little data on them at the moment. I think they may be related to the Sardinians (certainly much more than to the Balkans, Anatolia or Levant). We don't even know if they were "R1b Indo-Europeans" who lost their language thanks to their women. I guess the new paper on Italy will bring data on the Bronze Age and clarify if the Etruscans are descended from the Italian BBs.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Gaska View Post

    and I simply say that Sardinians and Basques (and the rest of Spaniards) have very different genetic histories in spite of sharing a high percentage of EEF.
    Most probably true although I would avoid using such peremptory tones. Now I don't know the prehistory of Sardinia in detail, but there may have been some old connection, although I don't think it was such as to make the Sardinians a carbon copy of the Basques and vice versa.

    If I remember correctly the myth of Sardinians being similar in every way to Basques is just another myth fed by geneticists. Just goes to show how geneticists are always to be taken with a grain of salt.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Gaska View Post
    In a previous comment you said-"Well, in a way, all Italians, and all Southern Europeans, in fact, are just modified Sardinians"

    and I simply say that Sardinians and Basques (and the rest of Spaniards) have very different genetic histories in spite of sharing a high percentage of EEF.


    If you refer to the Iberian peoples that inhabited Iberia at the arrival of the Romans, they were not different from the Basques, they were exactly the same (both in their uniparental markers and in their autosomal composition), that is to say, the Basques are Iberians who have kept their language despite the conquest. If when you say Iberians, you mean the current Spaniards, it is true that some regions of Spain are very similar to the Basques (Castile, Aragon, and the entire Mediterranean coast) and that in some regions such as Galicia, Extremadura are somewhat different because of the Roman and Muslim conquest.

    As for "Indoeuropeans", I am fine with you not wanting to debate, but you will understand that this explanation of R1b men from the steppes adopting the language of their women is simply speculation with little scientific basis. Because in any case, not only the Basque R1b men changed their language but all the historical Iberian peoples of the peninsula did it (Andalusia, Murcia, Valencia, Catalonia, Aragon, Pyrenees, large areas of Castile, Navarra, Basque Country and the south of France up to Herault, including Aquitaine and Occitania), it would be the first time in the history of mankind that conquerors did not impose their culture and language on a conquered people.

    Regarding the etruscans, we have little data on them at the moment. I think they may be related to the Sardinians (certainly much more than to the Balkans, Anatolia or Levant). We don't even know if they were "R1b Indo-Europeans" who lost their language thanks to their women. I guess the new paper on Italy will bring data on the Bronze Age and clarify if the Etruscans are descended from the Italian BBs.
    I'm not going to debate either the Indo-European impact on Iberia, about which you are completely wrong, or the Etruscans, of which you seem to know extremely little (We know what a good number of them were like autosomally and in terms of uniparental markers), or even the genetic history of Iberia i.e. percentages of ancient clusters in Iberians, who are, in fact, remarkably homogeneous, except for Pais Vasco, perhaps because of deliberate state ordered relocations. The data is there in multiple papers. It can even be seen in the Haak et al graph above where "Northern Spanish" is roughly Pais Vasco, and Spanish is the rest.) If you don't choose to believe it, then don't.

    I don't debate issues where the genetic data is so astoundingly clear.

    What I will discuss is your misunderstanding of the two statements I have highlighted. BOTH are true. Please go to the thread started by Maciamo on ancient Europeans (see link below) and his charts of autosomal percentages organized chronologically. If you look at the Neolithic/Chalcolithic chart you will see that all the areas in Southern Europe, including Iberia, and even parts of Central Europe were roughly the same, i.e. roughly similar to Neolithic/Chalcolithic Sardinia. That is not because Sardinia invaded these other areas (not even Spain), but because ALL of these areas, including Sardinian and Iberia, were settled by farmers from Anatolia who mingled with the remaining WHG hunter-gatherers. I'm sorry if it bothers or insults you that Neolithic Iberia was not very different from Neolithic/Chalcolithic Sardinia, but it's an undeniable fact.

    With the invasion of the Indo-Europeans and then later the historic periods, things changed, people changed. I've never and would never deny it.


    https://www.eupedia.com/forum/thread...942#post621942
    Last edited by Angela; 29-03-21 at 21:51.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Angela View Post
    Never said that Basques and Sardinians are the same. Why are you bringing it up?

    Basques and "Iberians" are different; not grossly different, but different. The difference has to be post Iron Age.

    As for Indo-Europeans, I'm not going to re-debate Olalde et al. Indo-European speaking Beakers invaded Iberia, leaving their R1b lineage behind them and their autosomes as well. That R1b is thousands of years younger than the R1b you're discussing, and came from the East. The Basques, like the Etruscans, are an example of Indo-European men adopting the language of their EEF wives.
    You’ve got that backwards. The Sardinian population is the one that absorbed significant levels of foreign (primarily Punic/Berber and Near Eastern in origin) admixture in the post-Iron Age epochs. Such introgressions occurred on a scale that was far more consequential/transformative in Sardinia than anything that took place in Iberia over the course of the same period. This fact is fairly common knowledge and easy to look up/verify (virtually every PCA modeling reflects this).

    Sardinia clearly retained the highest levels of EEF ancestry in Europe, but that is only one of several variables that account for their unique ‘cluster.’ Were the inverse the case, modern Iberians would not consistently show far greater levels of genetic affinity with Central and Western European populations than modern Sardinians do.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Astur_Cantabri View Post
    You’ve got that backwards. The Sardinian population is the one that absorbed significant levels of foreign (primarily Punic/Berber and Near Eastern in origin) admixture in the post-Iron Age epochs. Such introgressions occurred on a scale that was far more consequential/transformative in Sardinia than anything that took place in Iberia over the course of the same period. This fact is fairly common knowledge and easy to look up/verify (virtually every PCA modeling reflects this).

    Sardinia clearly retained the highest levels of EEF ancestry in Europe, but that is only one of several variables that account for their unique ‘cluster.’ Were the inverse the case, modern Iberians would not consistently show far greater levels of genetic affinity with Central and Western European populations than modern Sardinians do.
    Angela is right, please see the following study:

    We assembled genome-wide data from 271 ancient Iberians, of whom 176 are from the largely unsampled period after 2000 BCE, thereby providing a high-resolution time transect of the Iberian Peninsula. We document high genetic substructure between northwestern and southeastern hunter-gatherers before the spread of farming. We reveal sporadic contacts between Iberia and North Africa by ~2500 BCE and, by ~2000 BCE, the replacement of 40% of Iberia’s ancestry and nearly 100% of its Y-chromosomes by people with Steppe ancestry. We show that, in the Iron Age, Steppe ancestry had spread not only into Indo-European–speaking regions but also into non-Indo-European–speaking ones, and we reveal that present-day Basques are best described as a typical Iron Age population without the admixture events that later affected the rest of Iberia. Additionally, we document how, beginning at least in the Roman period, the ancestry of the peninsula was transformed by gene flow from North Africa and the eastern Mediterranean.

    https://science.sciencemag.org/content/363/6432/1230

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jovialis View Post
    Angela is right, please see the following study:
    You already know that geneticists like to make discoveries that may seem surprising or novel, so that their papers have a greater impact on public opinion. Harvardians-Prof Reich are specialists in this matter and Olalde is certainly one of them. When in that paragraph, he speaks of sporadic contacts with North Africa, he refers to this sample.

    *I4246/RISE697, sample #7, Fondo 5 UE05 Muerto 1: 2473–2030 cal BCE [2473–2299 cal BCE (3910±30 BP, PSUAMS-2119), 2280–2030 cal BCE (3650±40 BP, Beta-184837)- (2.155 AC)-Haplogrupo Y-E1b1b/1a (x E1b1b/1a1)- Mit- M1a1/b1

    However, it is not so surprising to find Africans in European BB sites, because I have already explained that it was a true thalassocracy with factories throughout the western Mediterranean. In this case, the surprising thing is that the African was a giant of two meters in height and that he did not travel alone just because in Sardinia we have

    *I15940 (2.245 AC)-TombE-Anghelu Ruju, Sardinia-HapY-E1b1b/1a-Hap Mit-M1a1/b1

    Exact uniparental markers. These cases show that the Iberian BBs traded with Sardinia and that some Africans participated in these activities. But these sporadic African contacts also occurred in Britain and Poland.

    + Archaeogenetics and Palaeogenetics of the British Isles- Doctoral Thesis Katharina Dulias (3 , march 2021)- “My project highlights population turnover during the Neolithic to Bronze Age transition in the Scottish Isles, identifies possible Near Eastern/North African ancestry in a Bell Beaker individual from Northeastern England”

    +Corded Ware cultural complexity uncovered using genomic and isotopic analysis from southeastern Poland-Anna Linderholm (2.020)-

    *Pcw420 (3830 ± 35 BP)-Proszowice-HapY-R1a-M417 (xZ645)-Mit Hap-L3c’d

    Regarding the Basques, everyone knows that genetically we are like the Iberians of the Iron Age, I think Asturcantabri was not referring to that, but to the statement that all Southern Europeans are slightly modified Sardinians, which is simply not true, despite sharing high percentages of EEF, and the obvious cultural relations between Iberia and Sardinia since the Neolithic.

    The Proboscidian ivory adorments from the hypogeum of Padru Jossu (Sanluri, Sardinia, Italy) and the Mediterranean Bell Beaker-Jose Miguel Morillo, Claudia Pau, Jean Guileine (2.018)-

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jovialis View Post
    Angela is right, please see the following study:
    It won't matter what the data shows.

    Some Iberians just still refuse to accept that there was some impact on their genomes from the years of the Muslim invasion and rule. The only ones who got barely any are the Spanish Basques, language probably being the determining factor.

    Science always loses when confronted by centuries of "official" history as pronounced by the victors. It happens all over the world. Iberians aren't the only ones.

    Btw, as I'm sure you know, but some people do not or have forgotten. The biggest reason for Sardinia's position on PCAs is DRIFT. To some extent that applies to the Basques too.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Astur_Cantabri View Post
    You’ve got that backwards. The Sardinian population is the one that absorbed significant levels of foreign (primarily Punic/Berber and Near Eastern in origin) admixture in the post-Iron Age epochs. Such introgressions occurred on a scale that was far more consequential/transformative in Sardinia than anything that took place in Iberia over the course of the same period. This fact is fairly common knowledge and easy to look up/verify (virtually every PCA modeling reflects this).

    Sardinia clearly retained the highest levels of EEF ancestry in Europe, but that is only one of several variables that account for their unique ‘cluster.’ Were the inverse the case, modern Iberians would not consistently show far greater levels of genetic affinity with Central and Western European populations than modern Sardinians do.
    Primarily North Mediterranean aka Italic admixture not Berber

    https://i.imgur.com/TViGpl0.jpg

    Inviato dal mio POT-LX1T utilizzando Tapatalk

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    Quote Originally Posted by Gaska View Post
    NO, NO , NO, the rest of Iberia has hardly changed, the contribution of North Africans is barely 5% in Extremadura and Galicia, and it is especially curious in the case of Galicia, which was never populated by Muslims and yet is the Spanish region with the highest percentage of North African blood. The rest of the Iberian peninsula is very uniform genetically speaking (certainly much more than the Balkans, Italy or Greece) - We Basques are Iberians from the Iron Age descendants of the first Iberian BBs and the rest of Spaniards are like us, except for a small percentage of Romans and Moors in some regions. Of course, that means that Iberians (and Basques especially who have never spoken an Indo-European language) have never been Indo-European, neither we nor our ancestors R1b.P312. Forget the fairy tales they have been telling us for years. By the way, I have read your comments about Italy, the Etruscans were not Indo-European either, and in spite of the Levantines they were very similar to us, they have nothing to do with Anatolia, Levant etc. etc. .... when you want we discuss it calmly.
    What is your take on this genetic study which claims that Iberians have SSA genetic input at least since the early Bronze Age? According to his paper SSA gene flow into Iberians wasn‘t an occasional individual phenomenon, but an admixture event recognizable at the population level. So, the SSA admixture in Iberians didn‘t occur during the Romans or Islamic period only but was there much longer.

    https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/10.1098/rspb.2018.2288

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    Sardinia is a wonderful island, but it has a very different genetic history than the Basque Country and Spain in general. We are only united by the fact that we have a high percentage of EEF and that it belonged to the crown of Aragon and Castile for many centuries. But their uniparental markers are very different from ours, and therefore their genetic roots are different.

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    + A genetic overview of movements and transitions in Italy from the Paleolithic to the Bronze Age.-Saupe et al (2.021)-The prehistory of Italy has been extensively studied in the context of social and cultural shifts using archaeological and historical records. However, genetic studies of ancient Italians have been limited so far to a small number of ancient samples.Here, we present a time-series study of genetic data from ancient individuals generated at the aDNA laboratory of the Institute of Genomics, Tartu, Estonia together with published samples, spanning from the end of the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM) in Europe (~16.5k years ago) to the Bronze Age (2200-900 BCE). We generated 23 new whole-genome sequences (average coverages between 0.0016× and1.2353×) from five archaeological sites geographically located in Northern and Central Italy dated to Paleolithic, Copper Age, and (Early) Bronze Age. We used time-series approaches to estimate the genetic affinities of the ancient individuals to contemporary Eurasian individuals in relation to the two major movements during the Neolithic (7000 - 3500 BCE) and the transition from Chalcolithic to Bronze Age. We found that the Paleolithic sample, dated to 17ka, already falls within the broader European Western hunter-gatherer showing a genetic affinity to the previously described Villabruna Cluster (Fu et al. 2016). Additionally, we present new data from the (Early) Bronze Age time period in Italy and show the arrival of Steppe-related ancestry in Northeast Italy at least as early as 1950 BCE.


    Interesting paper, especially for all those knuckleheads who still think that R1b has its origin in the Ukrainian steppes.

  21. #21
    Regular Member etrusco's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Gaska View Post
    + A genetic overview of movements and transitions in Italy from the Paleolithic to the Bronze Age.-Saupe et al (2.021)-The prehistory of Italy has been extensively studied in the context of social and cultural shifts using archaeological and historical records. However, genetic studies of ancient Italians have been limited so far to a small number of ancient samples.Here, we present a time-series study of genetic data from ancient individuals generated at the aDNA laboratory of the Institute of Genomics, Tartu, Estonia together with published samples, spanning from the end of the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM) in Europe (~16.5k years ago) to the Bronze Age (2200-900 BCE). We generated 23 new whole-genome sequences (average coverages between 0.0016× and1.2353×) from five archaeological sites geographically located in Northern and Central Italy dated to Paleolithic, Copper Age, and (Early) Bronze Age. We used time-series approaches to estimate the genetic affinities of the ancient individuals to contemporary Eurasian individuals in relation to the two major movements during the Neolithic (7000 - 3500 BCE) and the transition from Chalcolithic to Bronze Age. We found that the Paleolithic sample, dated to 17ka, already falls within the broader European Western hunter-gatherer showing a genetic affinity to the previously described Villabruna Cluster (Fu et al. 2016). Additionally, we present new data from the (Early) Bronze Age time period in Italy and show the arrival of Steppe-related ancestry in Northeast Italy at least as early as 1950 BCE.


    Interesting paper, especially for all those knuckleheads who still think that R1b has its origin in the Ukrainian steppes.
    Which paper are you quoting, is it a new one? I guess so because the mention of steppe ancestry in the north east is quite new. The first steppe sample in northern Italy IIRC was the Parma Bell Beaker R1b from the early bronze age ( Polada Culture)

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    Anthony's NEW video talking about Yamnaya culture is especially pathetic. They have over 300 samples from the steppes, and they have decided that the Yamnaya culture is descended from Sredni Stog. However, they still don't know what the origin of chg-iran related ancestry is, and THEY STILL DON'T KNOW WHAT THE MALE UNIPARENTAL MARKERS OF SS CULTURE ARE (CURIOUSLY ALL THE NEW SAMPLES FROM THAT CULTURE ARE FEMALE- BAD LUCK???????)

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    R1b-P312 came from the east?. I don't think so. Certainly not from the steppes. And regarding their ancestors R1b-M269/L51 etc, the debate is open until the Harvardians find those lineages in the steppes.

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    1 members found this post helpful.
    @ Pax Augusta

    Thanks for clearing up the Sardinian/Tuscan matter.

  25. #25
    Regular Member Cato's Avatar
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    Sardinians and Basques&Iberians share the same kind of EEF, the last study suggest that EEF came in Sardinia from Southern France,

    Inviato dal mio POT-LX1T utilizzando Tapatalk

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