Something I find to be strange, the paper for the Mycenaeans determined that there was generally continuity from them to the Modern Greeks, despite being pulled "east" of them. Yet the Iron Age Apulians, compared to the modern Apulians despite being just as close or even closer are considered radically different? Why? Is this some kind of subjectivity from the authors?
The Daunians also seem to be just about as "North West" from Modern Apulians, as Iron Age Latins, and Etruscans are from Modern Northern Italians.
The massive striking continuity was blown out of proportion, as if being 33% shifted towards Poles is no big deal.
Even Goths that attacked Greece were probably closer to Myceneans than the Northern Slavs, because they were more western. And don't get me started on Venetians, Albanians, Anatolians, Celts, Thracians etc.
I wonder if we add 10% Medieval Moorish onto an average Iron age Apulian sample what will we get, just as an experiment. Ignoring the old Greeks and others, of course.