Are IndoEuropean languges from the Iron Age?
I know that in this blog has been said that the IndoEuropean expansion of the Bronze Age is also the origin of the homonimous linguistic families.
Even though the Bronze Age expansion of IE peoples is way beyond proven...
We have to bear in mind that those languages don't seem to have appeared until centuries after the beginning of the Bronze Age.
Meaning that the IE family surged AFTER the first wave of migrations.
And I say this because of what the record suggests in my country, Spain.
We know that Reich lab proved that 4200 YBP ALL Spanish males were substituted by peoples descended from Steppe(Yamnaya) tribes.
But we see 2000 years after that, the Iberians (in the same region of El Argar remember), don't speak an IE language until the Romans invaded.
Basques (2nd in R1b) neither speak an IE language.
We go to Italy, until the Iron Age, the Etruscans don't speak an IE lang until Rome starts expanding (at their expense by the way).
Rome!!! How a people in North Italy doesn't speak IE until the quintaessential IndoEuropean classical Empire of Antiquity appears 2000 yrs later???
Also, look at the Celts. Scholars believe that Hallstatt/ La Tène cultures (middle of the 1st millenium BC) are the origin of Celtic cultures and languages. They don't seem to come from the Bronze Age, rather from the Iron Age.
But I know there are examples of previous IndoEuropean languages, in the Bronze Age.
Concretely Micenic, Sanskrit and Hititte.
But there is a coincidence with this cultures, that distinguish them from Celts, Iberians, Basques...
And is that those cultures are part of more sophisticated civilizations.
They're all closer to the Fertile Crescent and are way more advanced cultures than those of Western Europe.
One hypothesis I just launch here is that the IE ethnic expansion is a thing of the Bronze Age(4000 years ago).
And that over that base, always from advanced civilizations to primitive ones.
The Linguistic family appears over the next millenia.
By the way, we know that in the Late Bronze Age, places so "remote" such as Britain suffered a great population turnover that Reich proposed as the Celtic expansion.
Maybe these migrations brought IE languages.
But I wanna see your comments on the proposed population movements that prove or debunk my hypothesis.
I know that in this blog has been said that the IndoEuropean expansion of the Bronze Age is also the origin of the homonimous linguistic families.
Even though the Bronze Age expansion of IE peoples is way beyond proven...
We have to bear in mind that those languages don't seem to have appeared until centuries after the beginning of the Bronze Age.
Meaning that the IE family surged AFTER the first wave of migrations.
And I say this because of what the record suggests in my country, Spain.
We know that Reich lab proved that 4200 YBP ALL Spanish males were substituted by peoples descended from Steppe(Yamnaya) tribes.
But we see 2000 years after that, the Iberians (in the same region of El Argar remember), don't speak an IE language until the Romans invaded.
Basques (2nd in R1b) neither speak an IE language.
We go to Italy, until the Iron Age, the Etruscans don't speak an IE lang until Rome starts expanding (at their expense by the way).
Rome!!! How a people in North Italy doesn't speak IE until the quintaessential IndoEuropean classical Empire of Antiquity appears 2000 yrs later???
Also, look at the Celts. Scholars believe that Hallstatt/ La Tène cultures (middle of the 1st millenium BC) are the origin of Celtic cultures and languages. They don't seem to come from the Bronze Age, rather from the Iron Age.
But I know there are examples of previous IndoEuropean languages, in the Bronze Age.
Concretely Micenic, Sanskrit and Hititte.
But there is a coincidence with this cultures, that distinguish them from Celts, Iberians, Basques...
And is that those cultures are part of more sophisticated civilizations.
They're all closer to the Fertile Crescent and are way more advanced cultures than those of Western Europe.
One hypothesis I just launch here is that the IE ethnic expansion is a thing of the Bronze Age(4000 years ago).
And that over that base, always from advanced civilizations to primitive ones.
The Linguistic family appears over the next millenia.
By the way, we know that in the Late Bronze Age, places so "remote" such as Britain suffered a great population turnover that Reich proposed as the Celtic expansion.
Maybe these migrations brought IE languages.
But I wanna see your comments on the proposed population movements that prove or debunk my hypothesis.