Higher variability doesn't mean origin

Mmiikkii

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Usually, we assume that higher genetic diversity in a place means more time, more branches of the ethnicity in question.

But take a look at this.
In Spain, the DF27 branch is 40% of all R1b haplogroups (70%). More than half of a single most common branch. 2 Google searches prove that.

While in Mexico is like only 8% is DF27 out of a 40% prevalence of R1b. 20% of the single most common branch.
https://www.fsigeneticssup.com/article/S1875-1768(19)30237-9/fulltext
https://www.nature.com/articles/jhg201267

And nobody will think that the European haplogroup came to Spain from Mexico.
We more than know it came TO MEXICO during colonial times.
 
Usually, we assume that higher genetic diversity in a place means more time, more branches of the ethnicity in question.
But take a look at this.
In Spain, the DF27 branch is 40% of all R1b haplogroups (70%). More than half of a single most common branch. 2 Google searches prove that.
While in Mexico is like only 8% is DF27 out of a 40% prevalence of R1b. 20% of the single most common branch.
https://www.fsigeneticssup.com/article/S1875-1768(19)30237-9/fulltext
https://www.nature.com/articles/jhg201267
And nobody will think that the European haplogroup came to Spain from Mexico.
We more than know it came TO MEXICO during colonial times.

The different proportions of DF27 in Spain and Mexico don't necessarily indicate higher genetic diversity of R1b in Mexico. For example, if all the non-DF27 R1b in Mexico belonged to just one other branch of R1b, whilst the non-DF27 R1b in Spain was divided amongst several other branches of R1b, then it could be said that there was a higher genetic diversity of R1b in Spain compared to Mexico. That may be unlikely, but the point is that different proportions of one haplogroup do not imply different levels of genetic diversity unless one of the proportions is 100% or close to it.

One possible reason for the difference between Spain and Mexico is that Spanish emigration to Mexico may have been more often from western Spain than from eastern Spain. The Eupedia map of DF27 indicates that the haplogroup is not evenly distributed across Spain, there tends to be a higher proportion in eastern Spain.

Another possible reason is this quote from the Wikipedia page on Mexican demographics:

"While, during the colonial era, most of the European migration into Mexico was Spanish, in the 19th and 20th centuries, a substantial number of non-Spanish Europeans immigrated to the country".

Patterns of migration in the past few centuries have led to mixed populations in some countries with higher genetic diversity than in the various places of origin. For example, the USA today probably has higher Y haplogroup diversity than, say, 17th century England that early European immigrants came from.

This is different from the genetic diversity found in a place of origin, such as Africa, where the Y haplogroup diversity involves the most ancient branches of the Y haplogroup tree.
 
Thanks for the reply, I don't know the exact maths by which how old, and how many branches you need to lower diversity then.

Mexico hardly has Italian, German or French surnames so it's Y-Chromosome must be mostly Spanish.
 

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