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This is your personal interpretation. The historical fact is another and Demosthenes said it clearly:
"...οὐ μόνον οὐχ Ἕλληνος ὄντος οὐδὲ προσήκοντος οὐδὲν τοῖς Ἕλλησιν, ἀλλ᾽ οὐδὲ βαρβάρου ἐντεῦθεν ὅθεν καλὸν εἰπεῖν, ἀλλ᾽ ὀλέθρου Μακεδόνος, ὅθεν οὐδ᾽ ἀνδράποδον σπουδαῖον οὐδὲν ἦν πρότερον πρίασθαι."
"...he is not only no Greek, nor related to the Greeks, but not even a barbarian from any place that can be named with honour, but a pestilent knave from Macedonia, whence it was never yet possible to buy a decent slave."
Demosthenes-Third Philippic 31
There are two main sets. One from northern....North Macedonia (mouthful), and one from southern/east of Ohrid.
The east of Ohrid area is clearly ancient Macedonian territory and are pretty much identical to southern Illyrians.
I've always been saying EV-13 was mostly founder effects. It existed in pockets here and there, but it played no major role in any large civilizations.
Ruins of the ancient site of Lychnidos
The earliest inhabitants of the widest Lake Ohrid region were the Illyrian tribes of Enchele[16] and Dassaretii.[17][18]
Northern Macedonia in antiquity was a mixture of Thracians and Illyrians so they plot in-between them.
There was no one “Greek” language during Alexander’s reign. Koine hadn’t developed yet, we were still in the era of Attic/Ionian, Doric, Aeolian etc. Pittacus was an aeolian speaker and according to Plato, gave Prodicus (Attic speaker) a hard time with his dialect to the point of calling Pittacus a barbarian. I don’t hear anyone doubting that Aeolians were Greek speakers. The same happens today. I am a native Greek speaker, exposed to northern modern Greek dialects (both my maternal grandparents spoke one) and yet I do not fully understand Kozanitika (a divergent nothern idiom). I need them to speak slowly and I will still have unknown vocabulary. That doesn’t mean they aren’t speaking Greek.I have read countless debates whether the popular Macedonian language/dialect was mutually intelligible with ancient Greek, because while Alexander obviously was fluent in Greek, his soldiers had issues.
There are two main sets. One from northern....North Macedonia (mouthful), and one from southern/east of Ohrid.
The east of Ohrid area is clearly ancient Macedonian territory and are pretty much identical to southern Illyrians.
These are Iron Age samples are you sure the Lake Ohrid region was in Macedonian territory during the IA. During the classical era that was actually Thracian territory (based on maps I've looked at) bordering on Illyrian territory. Macedonian territory was further South. Again don't know about Iron Age Macedonia.
The "Macedonian" samples are likewise from far too north to be relevant for the ethnic Greek Macedonians that lived much farther south.
One of the biggest issues I have with these papers is that they've presented their data in a manner that makes it impossible to draw any inference.
I could multiply the examples, but pace to some posters here the samples I've seen so far from Albania are from the very north, so they have no relevance to Epirote Greeks, and likewise the "Macedonian" samples are likewise from far too north to be relevant for the ethnic Greek Macedonians that lived much farther south.
This was bound to happen.
One of the biggest issues I have with these papers is that they've presented their data in a manner that makes it impossible to draw any inference.
I could multiply the examples, but pace to some posters here the samples I've seen so far from Albania are from the very north, so they have no relevance to Epirote Greeks, and likewise the "Macedonian" samples are likewise from far too north to be relevant for the ethnic Greek Macedonians that lived much farther south.
The original Macedonia was a small piece, a large chunk of what is now Greek Macedonia was Thracian land.
We already have a sample from Thessaloniki.
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