Genetic History of Anatolia during Holocene

Anyone have any thoughts on this diagram(Yamnaya/Afanasievo R1b-Z2109+Variable eye color and some blonde hair)corroborating the recent studies of 1,000 ancient genomes uncover 10,000 years of natural selection in Europe. and Upper Palaeolithic genomes reveal deep roots of modern Eurasians?

https://www.quora.com/Did-the-Motala-hunter-gatherers-7-500-years-ago-have-blonde-hair


skin pigmentation and hair colour are the least reliable traits .......basically useless for matching

eye colour, blood type is another matter
 
skin pigmentation and hair colour are the least reliable traits .......basically useless for matching
eye colour, blood type is another matter

What do you think about AIM markers like a specific snp or gene deletion?
Like The variation is aSNP polymorphism rs1426654, which had been previously shown to be second among 3011 tabulated SNPs ranked as ancestry-informative markers. This single change in SLC24A5 explains between 25 and 38% of the difference in skin melanin index between peoples of sub-Saharan African and European ancestry.[5]

And/or
[h=1]Blood groups in ancient Europe[/h]
[FONT=&quot]such allele is actually a deletion at [/FONT][FONT=&quot]chr1:25592642-25661222, which completely deletes [/FONT]RHD[FONT=&quot].[/FONT]

https://mathii.github.io/2017/09/21/blood-groups-in-ancient-europe
 
Goodness knows what Herodotus meant by Persians, though. Persians as in straight from Persia, or Persians as in people in the Persian Empire, which would have included Anatolians?
Ethnography was not exactly his forte, as we have discovered in his writings about the Etruscans.
Also, the spread was pretty extreme, from ten or less to a few with 20%, and the Caucasus/Iran Neo in Iranians looks like 80% in some of them, so I guess it depends on what you mean by kinship.

Herodotus probably didn't know but we already know that ancient Persians and Greeks were Indo-European people, so they had a common origin, the strange thing is that we say ancient Persians, Medes, Greeks, Hittites, Luwians, Armenians,... had nothing in common.
 
What do you think about AIM markers like a specific snp or gene deletion?
Like The variation is aSNP polymorphism rs1426654, which had been previously shown to be second among 3011 tabulated SNPs ranked as ancestry-informative markers. This single change in SLC24A5 explains between 25 and 38% of the difference in skin melanin index between peoples of sub-Saharan African and European ancestry.[5]
And/or
[h=1]Blood groups in ancient Europe[/h]
https://mathii.github.io/2017/09/21/blood-groups-in-ancient-europe
you can have different skin pigmentation in siblings in the same family, same parents ....this is known fact ............depends on how much melanin and what type of individual melanin your body makes, it is not the same for every sibling in a same family...............your skin pigmentation even changes as you age
 
you can have different skin pigmentation in siblings in the same family, same parents ....this is known fact ............depends on how much melanin and what type of individual melanin your body makes, it is not the same for every sibling in a same family...............your skin pigmentation even changes as you age

What is your opinion on specific snp's(both phenotype and health-https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancestry-informative_marker
[h=2]Applications[edit][/h]Ancestry informative markers have a number of applications in genetic research, forensics, and private industry. AIMs that indicate a predisposition for diseases such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and renal disease have been shown to reduce the effects of genetic admixture in ancestral mapping when using admixture mapping software.[10] The differential ability of ancestry-informative markers allows scientists and researchers to narrow geographical populations of concern;
) and how they correspond in modern populations in Eurasia and Europe- in the following studies ?
1,000 ancient genomes uncover 10,000 years of natural selection in Europe. and Upper Palaeolithic genomes reveal deep roots of modern Eurasians
 
What is your opinion on specific snp's(both phenotype and health-https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancestry-informative_marker) and how they correspond in modern populations in Eurasia and Europe- in the following studies ?
1,000 ancient genomes uncover 10,000 years of natural selection in Europe. and Upper Palaeolithic genomes reveal deep roots of modern Eurasians


you moving on from skin pigmentation to ?? ( what exactly )

you clearly know about Ydna or mtDna and SNP's .................STR's only works in results if applied only in the same Ydna

I don't know where you are going with this
 
Kinship as in there were blood relations between them.

20% top end means it's almost 1/4 grandparent. It's quite significant, evident also in the J uniparentals (and G for the Caucasus).

Anatolia stands in between the Iranian Plateau/Caucasus and the Aegean coastline in Greece, there is a gradient that is visible in autosomals.

The Pelasgian substratum is of Anatolian (major) + Irano-Caucasian (minor) extraction, then you add the EHG signal from the north, Herodotus is being vindicated almost to a tee in what he wrote about his contemporaries in Greece.


It's still highly unlikely that Herodotus was aware of this.
 
I agree with the bolded comment.

However, I don't know who the people are who are surprised at the steppe in the early samples from this paper. As you say, early arrivals are going to carry more steppe, but also the number of new arrivals may diminish the further south they go, as was the case with the Slavic speakers. Nor do I think 15-25% is steppe "heavy". Northeast Europeans are steppe heavy, and early Corded Ware was steppe heavy. 15-25% are Southern European like levels.

Whether the original Greek speakers were Logkas like (if I'm understanding you) or not I don't know, but what I do know is that the Mycenaeans genetically were lower in steppe on average than Logkas, whether because there were fewer steppe admixed people the further south they went or there were more locals or a combination of both I don't know. I highly doubt there was a "replacement" of the Neolithic like people. There's way too much Neolithic/early Minoan like ancestry in the Mycenaeans. What we also know is that the Mycenaean "culture" clearly formed in the Peloponnese, either by absorbing local elements and/or early contact with the advanced civilization of the Minoans, and then radiated outwards from there.

Also, your idea that people on the higher end of steppe ancestry left more descendants because of a class system is questionable in my mind as it is contradicted by the results from the Lazaridis paper and even by the authors of this paper. The higher status samples among the Mycenaeans did not necessarily have higher steppe. This does not at all have the trademark signs of a "conquest", whatever the fantasies of Eurogenes and people of his ilk.

The paper about Himera had the Himera 1 group modelled as 80% Greece_LBA and 20% Balkan_IA (or BA, I can't recall now), because I presume that "Greece_LBA" is the average of the various Mycenaean samples ranging from around 0% to around 20% (and in some a bit more) steppe, at around 10%; so in order to get from 10% to 18% steppe, the 20% Balkan is needed. This is the mathematical model, but I think that the historical happening that it suggests, that is a migration from the Balkan, is not very likely because there is no evidence of such a massive migration into Greece from outside, since the Dorian invasions (I believe they happened, but it is true that it is not a settled question and anyway they would have been "Intra-greek") started from north Greece and must have been at any rate archaeologically indistinguishable from other Greeks.
If that is the case, then it would mean that north Greece remained more Logkas-like ( supposing that Logkas-like people were the fist proto-greek speakers, which I think is very likely) whereas in south Greece they mingled to a great extent with the previous inhabitants, becoming Mycenaean-like, but such a scenario is very unlikely, verging on the impossible since Thracians further north were Mycenaean-like (though with a very tiny bit of more steppe ancestry), and the leaked PCA from the Biomuse project has samples from today Greek Macedonia and they look identical to other Greeks.
What it means, in my opinion, is that the genesis of the Mycenaean genetic profile happened in north Greece, when Logkas-like people mixed to a great extent with people that mustn't have been much different from the ones further south in Greece, and then such a people migrated further south largely displacing the people that kept living there, and it would explain why the people living in south Greece were virtually identical to those further north in Greece (and Mycenaean society and culture would develop in the Peloponnese, though their genetic profile in my scenario would have formed largely in north Greece).
As for the presence of Minoan-like people in Mycenaean nobles, I think that it is compatible with my scenario and what so far we know about indo-european practices: often the migrations of indo-european speakers brought about significant demographic turn overs, but we know that it is likely that they also incorporated some originally non IE individuals into their group, likely local nobles (also it would explain why there were other haplogroups apart from R1b linked to IE speakers).
In other words, Minoan-like individuals in the Mycenaean nobility are explained by the incorporation of previous noble families in the Mycenaean society, whereas most of the previous populace didn't have such luck and found themselves in a subordinate position ( Compared to the nordicist position, it would be a reversal of their expectations with some people with basically no steppe ancestry ruling over people with higher steppe ancestry at around 15-20%).
That is what I think in order to explain why very likely classical Greeks at himera need a 20% Balkan ancestry compared to Greece_LBA average, though, to be perfectly clear, it is natural to expect that the likely minor steppe gradient from north to south Greece was due to more ancestry in the south stemming from the previous inhabitants, but my scenario is to imagine why such difference was very minor; maybe I am wrong and central/north Greeks were significantly more steppe heavy, but it would be then hard to imagine how Thracians would end up being similar to Mycenaeans and southern Greeks.
 
The paper about Himera had the Himera 1 group modelled as 80% Greece_LBA and 20% Balkan_IA (or BA, I can't recall now), because I presume that "Greece_LBA" is the average of the various Mycenaean samples ranging from around 0% to around 20% (and in some a bit more) steppe, at around 10%; so in order to get from 10% to 18% steppe, the 20% Balkan is needed. This is the mathematical model, but I think that the historical happening that it suggests, that is a migration from the Balkan, is not very likely because there is no evidence of such a massive migration into Greece from outside, since the Dorian invasions (I believe they happened, but it is true that it is not a settled question and anyway they would have been "Intra-greek") started from north Greece and must have been at any rate archaeologically indistinguishable from other Greeks.
If that is the case, then it would mean that north Greece remained more Logkas-like ( supposing that Logkas-like people were the fist proto-greek speakers, which I think is very likely) whereas in south Greece they mingled to a great extent with the previous inhabitants, becoming Mycenaean-like, but such a scenario is very unlikely, verging on the impossible since Thracians further north were Mycenaean-like (though with a very tiny bit of more steppe ancestry), and the leaked PCA from the Biomuse project has samples from today Greek Macedonia and they look identical to other Greeks.
What it means, in my opinion, is that the genesis of the Mycenaean genetic profile happened in north Greece, when Logkas-like people mixed to a great extent with people that mustn't have been much different from the ones further south in Greece, and then such a people migrated further south largely displacing the people that kept living there, and it would explain why the people living in south Greece were virtually identical to those further north in Greece (and Mycenaean society and culture would develop in the Peloponnese, though their genetic profile in my scenario would have formed largely in north Greece).
As for the presence of Minoan-like people in Mycenaean nobles, I think that it is compatible with my scenario and what so far we know about indo-european practices: often the migrations of indo-european speakers brought about significant demographic turn overs, but we know that it is likely that they also incorporated some originally non IE individuals into their group, likely local nobles (also it would explain why there were other haplogroups apart from R1b linked to IE speakers).
In other words, Minoan-like individuals in the Mycenaean nobility are explained by the incorporation of previous noble families in the Mycenaean society, whereas most of the previous populace didn't have such luck and found themselves in a subordinate position ( Compared to the nordicist position, it would be a reversal of their expectations with some people with basically no steppe ancestry ruling over people with higher steppe ancestry at around 15-20%).
That is what I think in order to explain why very likely classical Greeks at himera need a 20% Balkan ancestry compared to Greece_LBA average, though, to be perfectly clear, it is natural to expect that the likely minor steppe gradient from north to south Greece was due to more ancestry in the south stemming from the previous inhabitants, but my scenario is to imagine why such difference was very minor; maybe I am wrong and central/north Greeks were significantly more steppe heavy, but it would be then hard to imagine how Thracians would end up being similar to Mycenaeans and southern Greeks.

Thrace is bordering Anatolia. There could have been constant migration from Anatolia into Thrace. Resulting to Mycenaean-like Thracians. Proto-Greek speakers however could have entered through the Adriatic route, resulting to more Steppe admixture (Logkas) in certain parts of Greece.
We can't ignore a certain degree of Slavic and Vlach admixture into Greece. So there is little need to make a case that Classical Greeks as a whole were 25% (or more) Steppe admixed. However, the Dorian migration could have been another layer of 15-25% Steppe admixed people, mixing with 10-15% Steppe admixed Mycenaeans. Slightly elevating the levels of Steppe of the Classical Greeks. The medieval migrations did the rest raising the steppe admixture to the 25-30% levels of modern Greeks. That being said, the Dorians, although not high in steppe, could have also carried other haplogroups into Greece. Like more E-V13. The classical Greeks will still plot close to Mycenaean Greeks, because our calculators can not easily distinguish between Mycenaeans and Dorians. As for Mycenaean-like Ancient Macedonians in earlier reseaches. That's to be expected. Becuase the Dorian (probably Logkas-like) Macedonians also intermixed with Mycenaeans in the Iron Age as well as Ionian colonists and Thracians alike. They were probably just a bit more steppe admixed than Mycenaenas. Ofcourse this is just a hypothesis. We will need samples from Northern Greece to see if the higher levels of steppe admixture survived well into the Iron Age.

As for Achilles being blonde. Obvisouly I didn't mean Swedish blonde. But rather a rate of blondism which can be described as brown haired by many Europeans today. Enough difference compared to the majority of Mycenaean Greeks for Homer to distinguish him in such a way.
 
I am NOT going to go down the rabbit hole once again with Northern Europeans determined to believe that steppe people were blonde and brought blondism to the west. Believe what you want.

However, it just isn't true.

The steppe people were NOT blonde. We've had study after study showing they were predominantly dark haired and eyed and not particularly light skinned either. Catacomb people, in particular, were darker than ANY modern Europeans, to quote the author of the study. Do we really have to keep posting the study to prove it, or the one which shows that regardless of where blonde hair can be found in isolated areas in the past, the blonde hair and fair skin carried and spread by ADMIXED people like Corded Ware can be found on the NEOLITHIC EUROPEAN part of the genome, and were obviously therefore picked up from people of cultures like Globulara Amphora.

Look the papers up and read them again, for God's sake.

This is just one of those wrong-headed ideas which Northern Europeans and even some Nordicists in Southern Europe refuse to let go, no matter what the science shows. So, as I said, believe what you want. It's irrelevant to me. This hobby is full of people who refuse to accept the science in the papers because it goes against long held beliefs.


I'm afraid I disagree with you on that Angela. Everything I wrote here is backed up by studies and by geneticists such as Reich, Hanel and Carlberg, Mathieson who suggest exactly what I wrote here Steppe folks brought genes that lighten the hair and skin to Europe. This has nothing to do with being Northern European or going by BELIEVE or wishful thinking. Anyway, I ask you politely to consider that I'm not making stuff up but going by genetic papers as I understand them. Here a quote from Hanel and Carlberg (2020) paper.


The Anatolian farmers had rather short body stature and predominantly brown eyes, which explains the key anthropomorphic traits of today’s southern Europeans, in contrast to Yamnayas, who had a high body stature and settled preferentially in northern Europe.[3, 74] Moreover, these steppe pastoralists brought the horse, the wheel and Indo-European languages.[66, 74-76] Interestingly, ancient North Eurasian derived populations, such as eastern hunter-gatherers and Yamnayas, carried the blond hair allele rs12821256 of the KITLG gene to Europe.[66] Its first evidence was described in an 18 000 years old ancient North Eurasian west of Lake Baikal (Figure 2, right).


Besides, it doesn't really matter that Steppe people were not mostly blond they carried the genes for blondism and pale skin, and likely increased the frequency of blondism in Europeans. Anatolian farmers were also not particularly blond or pale and blue-eyed either.




Also, if the ancients were anything like their modern descendants in Southern Europe, the definition of "blonde" is different here than it is in the north. If you have light brown hair, you're a "bionda". The presence of platinum hair a la the Targaryens is unheard of once early childhood has passed. :)




That's true. Unlike Northerners, Southern Europeans consider mousy brown or light brown hair also as blond. In contrast, Northern Europeans sloppily call chocolate brown hair "black" and refer to dark brown hair as "raven-black". So the perceptions of hair color differ a bit among people and regions. That said I do think that some ancient Greek or Roman individuals had red but also blond hair, albeit not too bright, but rather in warm tones such as honey or sandy. Plus, light or mousy brown hair does brighten in the summer looking more golden.


 
Genetic History of Anatolia during Holocene

Anatolia has been a key region in Eurasian history, acting as a bridge for cultural exchanges between Europe and Asia during the Holocene. However, the demographic transformation of Anatolian and neighbouring populations during these ten millennia is largely unknown. This work has two main research foci: 1) to investigate the role of gene flow in cultural interactions during the Neolithic period between Central Anatolian and Aegean communities and to evaluate the possibility of large-scale human movements during Neolithization of the Aegean, 2) to assess population continuity in Anatolia and its surrounding regions. For this aim, we produced 49 new ancient genomes and analysed this data in conjunction with published aDNA datasets. We first investigated whether early Aegean Neolithic populations were established by farmer colonization from Central Anatolia or by local hunter-gatherers. Our results showed that the Aegean Neolithic populations may have been descendants of local hunter-gatherers who adapted farming. We then tackled the question of how populations interacted in time and space from the Epipaleolithic period to the present-day. We found that genetic diversity within each region in Southwest Asia and East Mediterranean steadily increased through the Holocene. We further observed that the sources of gene flow shifted in time. In the first half of the Holocene, regional populations homogenised among themselves. Starting with the Bronze Age, however, they diverged from each other, driven most likely by gene flow from external sources. This expanding mobility in time was accompanied by growing male-bias in admixture events. This work sheds new light on fine-scale population structure in Anatolian demographic history, filling a gap in our understanding of the nature of prehistoric and historic population interactions, not only among Anatolian populations but also with their neighbouring societies.

Link:https://open.metu.edu.tr/handle/11511/99472

View attachment 13629

View attachment 13630




If I'm reading the PCA correctly, Greece_Sarakenos_BA overlaps and Greece_Theopetra_BA brackets southern Italians.
 
[FONT=&]

That's true. Unlike Northerners, Southern Europeans consider mousy brown or light brown hair also as blond. In contrast, Northern Europeans sloppily call chocolate brown hair "black" and refer to dark brown hair as "raven-black". So the perceptions of hair color differ a bit among people and regions. That said I do think that some ancient Greek or Roman individuals had red but also blond hair, albeit not too bright, but rather in warm tones such as honey or sandy. Plus, light or mousy brown hair does brighten in the summer looking more golden.
[/FONT]



mousy brown ...light brown .......also fall into the group Venetian Blonde or now called Hollywood Blonde

my grandfather had hair colour called chestnut .........brown with red through it

his father ...had mousy brown hair called blonde and his wife hair colour was dark blonde ( not mousy brown ) and both where designated blonde
 
If I'm reading the PCA correctly, Greece_Sarakenos_BA overlaps and Greece_Theopetra_BA brackets southern Italians.

jglbpjb.png
 
Thrace is bordering Anatolia. There could have been constant migration from Anatolia into Thrace. Resulting to Mycenaean-like Thracians. Proto-Greek speakers however could have entered through the Adriatic route, resulting to more Steppe admixture (Logkas) in certain parts of Greece.
We can't ignore a certain degree of Slavic and Vlach admixture into Greece. So there is little need to make a case that Classical Greeks as a whole were 25% (or more) Steppe admixed. However, the Dorian migration could have been another layer of 15-25% Steppe admixed people, mixing with 10-15% Steppe admixed Mycenaeans. Slightly elevating the levels of Steppe of the Classical Greeks. The medieval migrations did the rest raising the steppe admixture to the 25-30% levels of modern Greeks. That being said, the Dorians, although not high in steppe, could have also carried other haplogroups into Greece. Like more E-V13. The classical Greeks will still plot close to Mycenaean Greeks, because our calculators can not easily distinguish between Mycenaeans and Dorians. As for Mycenaean-like Ancient Macedonians in earlier reseaches. That's to be expected. Becuase the Dorian (probably Logkas-like) Macedonians also intermixed with Mycenaeans in the Iron Age as well as Ionian colonists and Thracians alike. They were probably just a bit more steppe admixed than Mycenaenas. Ofcourse this is just a hypothesis. We will need samples from Northern Greece to see if the higher levels of steppe admixture survived well into the Iron Age.

As for Achilles being blonde. Obvisouly I didn't mean Swedish blonde. But rather a rate of blondism which can be described as brown haired by many Europeans today. Enough difference compared to the majority of Mycenaean Greeks for Homer to distinguish him in such a way.

Achilles:

sFHYdtZ.jpg
 
We already know from the Biomuse project on Ancient Greece there is a Spartan with Blonde Hair and Blue eyes, that is genetically similar to the others; southern European.

I should also remind people there are chalcolithic Levantines with Blue eyes, who are similar to other ancient Levantines.

https://www.livescience.com/63396-ancient-israel-immigration-turkey-iran.html

There are also modern southern Europeans that also have blond hair and blue eyes btw.
 
Achilles:

sFHYdtZ.jpg

I don't doubt that some Mycenaeans and ancient Greeks in general had light hair and eyes, but even assuming that Achilles was a real person, you think that this mosaic was done by someone living at that time who had seen him?

Honestly, the things I read on this site.
 
Thrace is bordering Anatolia. There could have been constant migration from Anatolia into Thrace. Resulting to Mycenaean-like Thracians. Proto-Greek speakers however could have entered through the Adriatic route, resulting to more Steppe admixture (Logkas) in certain parts of Greece.
We can't ignore a certain degree of Slavic and Vlach admixture into Greece. So there is little need to make a case that Classical Greeks as a whole were 25% (or more) Steppe admixed. However, the Dorian migration could have been another layer of 15-25% Steppe admixed people, mixing with 10-15% Steppe admixed Mycenaeans. Slightly elevating the levels of Steppe of the Classical Greeks. The medieval migrations did the rest raising the steppe admixture to the 25-30% levels of modern Greeks. That being said, the Dorians, although not high in steppe, could have also carried other haplogroups into Greece. Like more E-V13. The classical Greeks will still plot close to Mycenaean Greeks, because our calculators can not easily distinguish between Mycenaeans and Dorians. As for Mycenaean-like Ancient Macedonians in earlier reseaches. That's to be expected. Becuase the Dorian (probably Logkas-like) Macedonians also intermixed with Mycenaeans in the Iron Age as well as Ionian colonists and Thracians alike. They were probably just a bit more steppe admixed than Mycenaenas. Ofcourse this is just a hypothesis. We will need samples from Northern Greece to see if the higher levels of steppe admixture survived well into the Iron Age.

As for Achilles being blonde. Obvisouly I didn't mean Swedish blonde. But rather a rate of blondism which can be described as brown haired by many Europeans today. Enough difference compared to the majority of Mycenaean Greeks for Homer to distinguish him in such a way.

I'm sorry, but this is all conjecture, without any facts to back it up, and the conjecture depends on scenarios which aren't, imo, very plausible.

I have no idea, for example, why Greek speakers, coming from the steppe, probably Catacomb Culture, would have gone all the way to the Adriatic to enter Greece, instead of taking the most direct route in the east and then diffusing from there.

Regardless, as I tried to explain in my response to Leopoldo, the lessening effect of steppe admixture with distance and density of population is evident throughout the Bronze Age. The areas with the most steppe are the areas in Northeastern Europe which were extremely sparsely populated, and in which the steppe admixed people were the first inhabitants or the largest share of the inhabitants by far. The areas with the next highest amount of steppe were Central Europe and Britain, where the Neolithic farmers experienced population crashes as the result of failing crops and pestilence like the plague.

Things were different in southern Europe, including Greece. We can see that, for example, in the composition of people like the Etruscans and the Latins, who were nowhere near the 50% steppe of Central European cultures of the time. It has been said, in fact, that the Etruscans, who even adopted the language of the locals, were the last flowering of Neolithic Europe, a statement with which I happen to agree.

Even in Central Europe, however, there is, after the initial impact of the arrival of Corded Ware people, a "resurgence", if you will, of Neolithic ancestry. The same thing happened with WHG ancestry after the arrival of the Neolithic farmers. In the wake of the first impact, the prior inhabitants aren't going to be buried in permanent, cared for tombs which we can conveniently find. It's only with the passage of time and the incorporation of these prior inhabitants that signs of them emerge.

That is why, imo, we suddenly have these Mycenaean "like" Iron Age Thracians. Now, could some of that ancestry have come from Anatolia? It's possible, I suppose, but it was my impression that the gene flow and culture went in the other direction. If you are aware of archaeology papers which show gene flow from Anatolia during the important period before the Iron Age I'd be very interested in seeing them. However, even if that were the case, by the late Bronze Age Anatolians had increased CHG/IRAN NEO, so I don't see how that would produce Thracians who were Mycenaean like and "lite", because they had a bit more steppe.

As to the genetic profile of the Classical Era Greeks I will wait until we have some more samples to look at. Certainly, the Empuries sample and the Athens one still seem very Mycenaean like. Likewise, the leak from the paper on Campania in the Greek Era talks about a profile with substantial CHG/Iran Neo, so I guess I'm a bit skeptical that the Classical Era people were all that different from the samples we have, but of course I'll bow to the ancient dna when we get it.

Whether there was a "Dorian" invasion or not is hotly debated by archaeologists, and we have no "Dorian" genome for comparison, so anything we say is sheer guesswork. Also, even if there were such an invasion, the likelihood is that they were Greek speakers from more northern areas in Greece so I don't see how they could have made Classical Era Greeks all that much more "steppe" like.
 

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