halfalp
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Hi, i'm new on Eupedia and i'm not very billingual, so sorry for potential faults.
I have an idea who break my mind, indo-european question, of course. I look Eupedia articles and Maciamo genetics of population maps by a few time, and it's a great work, but like a lot of people here, i guess, i think those maps who represent modern genetic view is not concerned by antics view of. Some people argue that, R1a is pontic-steppe native and R1b some of kind mesopotamian population of their debut ( neolithic ? ) migrations. For a modern person its sounds like R1a is mongoloid and R1b some kind of proto-semitic. But is it possible that black sea in 6000 - 3500 bc, aprox... was a lake and not a sea, and that the region was not seperated like dardanelle detroit, but a population continuum of balkans, pontic-steppe and near east and then R1a was just in north, and R1b in south of this lake, Indo-european languages and Semitic languages were certainly clothes and the two language are synthetic of what i know, maybe mutual influence at that continuum time. I have learn on the black sea wikipedia article that, there is a theory about the fact that the black sea was an lake and with the warming of climat, become a sea, and the ethno-cultural, linguistico continuum of that ( black sea ) region create certain " cult " or " idea " like biblical deluge and other stuf. Give me your thoughts about that, if my thread is understandable. I know that is a poorely thread with a lot of projection. Sorry for my english too, but i have so much questions in my head and maybe the former are not the best.
I have an idea who break my mind, indo-european question, of course. I look Eupedia articles and Maciamo genetics of population maps by a few time, and it's a great work, but like a lot of people here, i guess, i think those maps who represent modern genetic view is not concerned by antics view of. Some people argue that, R1a is pontic-steppe native and R1b some of kind mesopotamian population of their debut ( neolithic ? ) migrations. For a modern person its sounds like R1a is mongoloid and R1b some kind of proto-semitic. But is it possible that black sea in 6000 - 3500 bc, aprox... was a lake and not a sea, and that the region was not seperated like dardanelle detroit, but a population continuum of balkans, pontic-steppe and near east and then R1a was just in north, and R1b in south of this lake, Indo-european languages and Semitic languages were certainly clothes and the two language are synthetic of what i know, maybe mutual influence at that continuum time. I have learn on the black sea wikipedia article that, there is a theory about the fact that the black sea was an lake and with the warming of climat, become a sea, and the ethno-cultural, linguistico continuum of that ( black sea ) region create certain " cult " or " idea " like biblical deluge and other stuf. Give me your thoughts about that, if my thread is understandable. I know that is a poorely thread with a lot of projection. Sorry for my english too, but i have so much questions in my head and maybe the former are not the best.