Tomenable
Well-known member
- Messages
- 5,676
- Reaction score
- 1,525
- Points
- 113
- Location
- Poland
- Ethnic group
- Polish
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- R1b-L617
- mtDNA haplogroup
- W6a
For example accordng to this map only less than half of France was Francophone / ethnically French as of year 1836:
I think a similar situation (with many languages spoken throughout the country) was also in Italy in 1800. So in case if Poland survived instead of getting partitioned in 1772 is there a chance that entire country would eventually become Polish-speaking just like it happened in France? In such case in 1910 there would exist Poland within its pre-1772 borders and with around 50 million ethnically Polish inhabitants.
In France in 1836 people spoke mainly various Romance languages or dialects, while in Poland in 1772 mainly Slavic languages. So it would be equally easy to standardize the language as Polish as it was in France to standardize it as French and Frenchify the populace, right?
(50 million is the number of inhabitants within the pre-1772 territory of Poland as of year 1910, it was 50,015,707 in 1910)
I think a similar situation (with many languages spoken throughout the country) was also in Italy in 1800. So in case if Poland survived instead of getting partitioned in 1772 is there a chance that entire country would eventually become Polish-speaking just like it happened in France? In such case in 1910 there would exist Poland within its pre-1772 borders and with around 50 million ethnically Polish inhabitants.
In France in 1836 people spoke mainly various Romance languages or dialects, while in Poland in 1772 mainly Slavic languages. So it would be equally easy to standardize the language as Polish as it was in France to standardize it as French and Frenchify the populace, right?
(50 million is the number of inhabitants within the pre-1772 territory of Poland as of year 1910, it was 50,015,707 in 1910)
