Since there is a Nordic and Anglo saxon branch of Italo Celtic R1b S116. Could that mean that 3,000-4,500ybp early Germanic speakers inter married with Italo Celts. I put the haplotype of a 3,000 year old Urnfield R1b from central Germany into Y DNA haplogroup predictors all said it was for sure Germanic R1b S21. Urnfield i think is suppose to be Italo Celtic only. Since Proto German speakers migrated from Germany to Denmark and south Scandnavia why would all German speakers or people who spoke a related language leave Germany why couldn't there be some left who mixed with Italo Celts.
Maciamo - is the Bashkortostan U152 of a European variety, or is it a completely different subclade of U152 that is not related to European U152 subclades?
From what I can dig up it seems most of all the Germanic P312 >DF27 subclades are very recent migrations between Britain and Scandinavia. MRCA for L165 is 500YBP (1500AD). Z196 is 1800YBP (200AD). I don't think you can say that there really is a P312 Germanic marker going back before the Germanic migration. Before the Germanic migrations the P312 and all it's subclades were probably situated south of the Rhine and Britain. The modern distribution of P312 (Subclades) and L11* in Scandinavia is probably due to recent migration. So, the Germanic invaders Germanized the P312 people during the 4th and 5th century AD.
... From what I can dig up it seems most of all the Germanic P312 >DF27 subclades are very recent migrations between Britain and Scandinavia. MRCA for L165 is 500YBP (1500AD). Z196 is 1800YBP (200AD). I don't think you can say that there really is a P312 Germanic marker going back before the Germanic migration.
... Before the Germanic migrations the P312 and all it's subclades were probably situated south of the Rhine and Britain. The modern distribution of P312 (Subclades) and L11* in Scandinavia is probably due to recent migration. So, the Germanic invaders Germanized the P312 people during the 4th and 5th century AD.
Do you know to which subclades they belong ? I believe they are descendants of the La Tène Celts that went into Ukraine around 200 BCE, then got lost by history after reaching Russia. Another possibility is that they descend from the earlier migration of Hallstatt Celts that ended up in the Tarim basin circa 1000 BCE (see this thread).
That's interesting. I haven't really looked into the TMRCA of P312 in Scandinavia yet. I knew that Norwegian Vikings brought back Irish and Scottish slaves, which explains the peak of L21 in western Norway. I don't have much information about DF27 in Scandinavia and Germany. What do you think about DF19 and L238 ? These look more Germanic than Celtic despite being downstream of P312.
I don't see how you are getting that almost all P312 in Scandinavia are the result of recent migrations from Britain. What is your reasoning? An age for a subclade is not in and of itself an indicator of an origin elsewhere.
I would also be surprised if Z196 is that age. We are discovering more pieces to it as we go so it might be quite a bit older. How old do you think the R1b-North-South cluster is?
You are using the word "all". That's indicating an assertive position.
Which recent migrations from Britain to Scandinavia account for the greatest share of the P312 population now in Scandinavia?
I don't see where you are getting that P312 diversity does not occur in Scandinavia.Because almost all P312 diversity is outside of Scandinavia.
I guess I'm not saying I see the same thing. There are some tight correlations but there are also many that aren't. You cite Scotland and Ireland in particular, but that is M222 rich country. M222's proportion's L21 in Scotland and Ireland are greater than in Scandinavia. That implies to me that the L21 in Scandinavia, at least a good portion of it, may have come from some where else.The few particular subclades that have strong concentrations in Scandinavia have tighter connection to Britain (particularly Scotland and Ireland), then anywhere else.
Why do you think that people who came by way of the slave traded would have prospered relative to the other inhabitants in Scandinavia? I would think they would have had a tougher go at it, particularly at men's input to reproduction and family survival rates.To me, it makes more sense that current P312>L238 and L165 come from migration or slave trade of Brits into Scandinavia and Iceland (possibly Iceland to Norway and Sweden). It could have been a rare genetic marker in the Isles that prospered in Iceland, Norway, and Sweden. I don't think that the invading Vikings always killed every man and stole the women. They probably recruited locals willing to cooperate. I don't know, this is just a guess.
Do you know to which subclades they belong ?
Because almost all P312 diversity is outside of Scandinavia. The few particular subclades that have strong concentrations in Scandinavia have tighter connection to Britain (particularly Scotland and Ireland), then anywhere else. To me, it makes more sense that current P312>L238 and L165 come from migration or slave trade of Brits into Scandinavia and Iceland (possibly Iceland to Norway and Sweden). It could have been a rare genetic marker in the Isles that prospered in Iceland, Norway, and Sweden. I don't think that the invading Vikings always killed every man and stole the women. They probably recruited locals willing to cooperate. I don't know, this is just a guess.
How do we know that? Maybe they only didn’t have a writing system. Greek has been spoken already in South East Europe since around the late 3rd millennium BC. The earliest written evidence is dating back to 1400 BC. So that makes 3400 years old. We know that Vedic Sanskrit existed already 2nd millennium BC. Oldest Rigveda dating back to 1200 BC. That’s is 3200 years old. Ancient Iranic Avesta is maybe even older. The distance between Ancient Greek and Sanskrit is thousands of kilometers. Also we have Hittite/Anatolian languages. Hittite language is already attested in cuneiform in 1600 BC. The differences between those IE languages were already HUGE! IMHO the split occurred already even thousands years before, 6000-7000 years ago!Absolutely not. There were no Germanic speakers 4500 years ago. The earliest Proto-Germanic could possible be as old as 3500 years old, but actual Germanic languages are only 2500 years old.
(why we don't see U152 outside of France, Italy, and Switzerland)
There is U152 and pretty much all the other P312 subclades distributed all over Europe. Question is when did they get there? Maybe Celtic migration, or Germanic migration or some Jewish line ejected from some country to another?
I believe that P312 was PIE to Italo-Celtic and it's subclades Italic and Celtic speakers.
The Germanic P312 subclades were later Germanized. I question if the Nordwestblock languages weren't an Italo-Celtic. Is U106 associated with Nordwestblock, or is this to far north?
Maciamo said:Absolutely not. There were no Germanic speakers 4500 years ago. The earliest Proto-Germanic could possible be as old as 3500 years old, but actual Germanic languages are only 2500 years old.
How do we know that? Maybe they only didn’t have a writing system. Greek has been spoken already in South East Europe since around the late 3rd millennium BC. The earliest written evidence is dating back to 1400 BC. So that makes 3400 years old. We know that Vedic Sanskrit existed already 2nd millennium BC. Oldest Rigveda dating back to 1200 BC. That’s is 3200 years old. Ancient Iranic Avesta is maybe even older. The distance between Ancient Greek and Sanskrit is thousands of kilometers. Also we have Hittite/Anatolian languages. Hittite language is already attested in cuneiform in 1600 BC. The differences between those IE languages were already HUGE! IMHO the split occurred already even thousands years before, 6000-7000 years ago!
Great addition to this thread. Thank you very much. I've never seen this. Don't agree with everything, but it's very interesting to think about.