taranis
i am sorry fro sounding flippant, i was rushing home and had no time to respond properly.
the above lows were developed by observing european languages and trying to make sense of them. the theory was also made based on the premise that at the time of the creation of European languages most of Europe was populated by Celts with Greeks, Romans, Germans, Balts, Iberians, Gaels, Gauls living on the fringes. The problem was that the European languages didn't behave the way people expected them to. Especially the so called Celtic languages and Germanic languages. More and more exceptions cropped up, and this is where this comes from:
what was missing is something to glue all the languages together, which is what the missing Celtic language should have done. but there were people who lived in all the "Celtic" lands at the time when the languages were formed. they even had their own alphabet and their own language and had left numerous written texts. those people were Etruscans and Venets and vends. But no one could read this strange language. Until one day someone did by using Slavic alphabet and Slavic languages. then someone remembered all those people throughout the history who claimed that venti ind vendi were slavs. but how was that possible when slavs only came to europe in the 5th century? then some other people went and rechecked the etymological dictionary and found out that most words in so called "old" European languages which were of unknown origin are of slavic origin. then some other people did lots of genetic studies of the European people and discovered that Slavs in the Balkans (etruscans, veneti) were in the Balkans in the antiquity and that slavs (wends) in Baltic were there since at least the lusatian culture 2300 years ago.
this is why i don't agree with your explanation for beech. it makes no sense in light of all these finds. this doesn't mean that the whole sound correspondence law is crap.
Well, let me ask you this: do you believe that the methodology that linguists have developed over the past 130+ years, which indeed is the framework for every language family that has been established (read: it works for all language families), is complete nonsense? Because that is the consequence of your opinion.
i am sorry fro sounding flippant, i was rushing home and had no time to respond properly.
the above lows were developed by observing european languages and trying to make sense of them. the theory was also made based on the premise that at the time of the creation of European languages most of Europe was populated by Celts with Greeks, Romans, Germans, Balts, Iberians, Gaels, Gauls living on the fringes. The problem was that the European languages didn't behave the way people expected them to. Especially the so called Celtic languages and Germanic languages. More and more exceptions cropped up, and this is where this comes from:
So, the underlying principle (the so-called "Neogrammarian Hypothesis) is that sound laws have no exceptions. This means when a sound change occurs, it must affect all words in the vocabulary of a language. If there are seemingly exceptions, these are governed by their own set of rules (for example, only at the beginning of a word, only between vowels, etc.). Additionally, sound laws have no memoryof previous sound changes.
what was missing is something to glue all the languages together, which is what the missing Celtic language should have done. but there were people who lived in all the "Celtic" lands at the time when the languages were formed. they even had their own alphabet and their own language and had left numerous written texts. those people were Etruscans and Venets and vends. But no one could read this strange language. Until one day someone did by using Slavic alphabet and Slavic languages. then someone remembered all those people throughout the history who claimed that venti ind vendi were slavs. but how was that possible when slavs only came to europe in the 5th century? then some other people went and rechecked the etymological dictionary and found out that most words in so called "old" European languages which were of unknown origin are of slavic origin. then some other people did lots of genetic studies of the European people and discovered that Slavs in the Balkans (etruscans, veneti) were in the Balkans in the antiquity and that slavs (wends) in Baltic were there since at least the lusatian culture 2300 years ago.
this is why i don't agree with your explanation for beech. it makes no sense in light of all these finds. this doesn't mean that the whole sound correspondence law is crap.