Fire Haired14
Banned
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- Y-DNA haplogroup
- R1b DF27*
- mtDNA haplogroup
- U5b2a2b1
The inner-cities of America are a wild-west type scenario. Plenty of guys carry guns or knifes around everyday.
Were these people of similar ethnic backgrounds? If you compared an R1b Swede, an I1 Swede, and an R1b Scot, you might actually discover that the two Swedes were more similar to each other than either of them was to the Scot.
One problem with measuring "femininity" is that it is not an easy concept to define formally or quantitatively. In addition to there being no clear model for giving someone a femininity "score", there is also the issue that ideas on what is and what is not "feminine" varies from culture to culture and from time period to time period. For example, some cultures (including one in which R1b predominates) do not consider skirts to be inherently feminine.
...I agree. As "most femenine" I mean most close to the behavior generally shared among all womans. I never considered "skirts" as "femenine behavior", some guy could be very masculine and dress a skirt but also other guy could be most femenine and dress a skirt.
I have heard that being bisexual, gay, lesbian, or transgendered is genetic but people from all genetic backgrounds and heritages around the world are LGBT; but in some countries if you come out you risk imprisonment and death.
There is a great debate right now as to whether homosexuality is genetic or learned, homosexuals themselves strongly believe that they are "born this way". I present to you my research into the topic.
First I will reference this map of the legality of homosexuality in Europe contrasted against the spread of Y DNA Haplogroup R1b in Europe.
You can easily see that homosexuality is only legal in European countries where the y dna haplogroup r1b is most common.
As we already know R1b is directly tied to the spread of the celtic cultures in europe.
(Map of the spread of celtic cultures below, also correlates to homosexuality legality status).
To finalize this theory I present a quote from the great Greek philosopher Aristolte and a later Roman Historian on the sexual preferences of the celts (taken from the celtic wikipedia page)
According to Aristotle, most "belligerent nations" were strongly influenced by their women, but the Celts were unusual because their men openly preferred male lovers (Politics II 1269b).[77] H. D. Rankin in Celts and the Classical World notes that "Athenaeus echoes this comment (603a) and so does Ammianus (30.9). It seems to be the general opinion of antiquity."[78] In book XIII of his Deipnosophists, the Roman Greek rhetorician and grammarian Athenaeus, repeating assertions made by Diodorus Siculus in the 1st century BC (Bibliotheca historica 5:32), wrote that Celtic women were beautiful but that the men preferred to sleep together. Diodorus went further, stating that "the young men will offer themselves to strangers and are insulted if the offer is refused".
I think it is fair to say that r1b most likely carries the gene responsible for homosexuality.
It appears as homos are predominantly Northern Europeans.
That's right. Gays and lesbians are more openly visible (out of closet) in more open and tolerant societies like Western Europe. On genetic level there is not much difference among Europeans to explain homosexuality in numbers between nations.By Northern European you mean NorthWest European, primary Germany, France, British Isles, and Scandinavia? I haven't seen confirmation NorthWest European is a real genetic category.
I haven't read anything that makes a Swede closer to an Irishman as opposed to Polish or Russian. Saying there's a special relation between Scandinavians with Irish is far-fetched and unproven. I see it as a Isles Celts, Norse(and Germans?), and Gaul(??, no idea what's going on here, France is very diverse). Two distinct regions, and a mysterious Gaul/France and Germany. I don't see any reason to associate France, British Isles, Germany, and Scandinavia all together as one big category.
Anyways, I'd expect NorthWest European countries to have higher percentage of homosexuals because to be the case because they're the mostly Liberal. Think about it: Britian, France, and Germany have been powerhouses for 100s of years and the center of liberalism. It'll be hard to find a homosexual in the SouthEast United States, where everyone is basically 100% British. Or in Western United States, where everyone is 100% NorthWest European.
If Poles, Russians, Lithuanians, etc. are very similar to NorthWest Europeans genetically, why are they so much more conservative and non-homosexual? Obviously the difference is cultural not genetic.
...Anyways, I'd expect NorthWest European countries to have higher percentage of homosexuals because to be the case because they're the mostly Liberal. Think about it: Britian, France, and Germany have been powerhouses for 100s of years and the center of liberalism. It'll be hard to find a homosexual in the SouthEast United States, where everyone is basically 100% British. Or in Western United States, where everyone is 100% NorthWest European....
If this scholar is correct, homosexual relations between an adolescent boy and an older more experienced warrior with which we're familiar from classical Greek culture was actually part of the Indo-European culture from the beginning, and would have spread with their culture.
https://books.google.com/books?id=1...ge&q=Indo-Europeans and homosexuality&f=false
If that's the case it would have involved all the y-Dna haplogroup carriers who were involved, including R1a. That may explain the pederasty in the Afghan tribes. It's also very common in Arab countries as well, however, which is why the hypocrisy of the ISIS fundamentalist ravings in regard to homosexuality is particularly infuriating. PLO leader Arafat was notorious in that regard, leading to all sorts of rumors that he died of AIDS.
http://foreignpolicy.com/2013/10/28/bacha-bazi-an-afghan-tragedy/
Few cases? Check Spartan Culture. It was so prevalent that their law was modified to allow a wife to sleep with other Spartan warrior in order to make a baby! Number of spartans was dropping through centuries till only 1,000 left, and dissipated into general population of the region. I guess, there was a bit too many gays and lasbiens and too few straight to sustain the population.That's pretty unlikely. A few cases in Afghanistan or Greece, doesn't mean 3000 BC PIE did that. The system in Afghanistan is a tradition of abuse anyways. It's not as if it's a culture-trait or whatever. It's the result of a world of pedophiles with guns. The ancient Greeks were known perverts, I don't think we can use them to represent any norm.
Few cases? Check Spartan Culture. It was so prevalent that their law was modified to allow a wife to sleep with other Spartan warrior in order to make a baby! Number of spartans was dropping through centuries till only 1,000 left, and dissipated into general population of the region. I guess, there was a bit too many gays and lasbiens and too few straight to sustain the population.
How do we explain lesbians?
If this scholar is correct, homosexual relations between an adolescent boy and an older more experienced warrior with which we're familiar from classical Greek culture was actually part of the Indo-European culture from the beginning, and would have spread with their culture.
https://books.google.com/books?id=1...ge&q=Indo-Europeans and homosexuality&f=false
If that's the case it would have involved all the y-Dna haplogroup carriers who were involved, including R1a. That may explain the pederasty in the Afghan tribes. It's also very common in Arab countries as well, however, which is why the hypocrisy of the ISIS fundamentalist ravings in regard to homosexuality is particularly infuriating. PLO leader Arafat was notorious in that regard, leading to all sorts of rumors that he died of AIDS.
http://foreignpolicy.com/2013/10/28/bacha-bazi-an-afghan-tragedy/
Their fathers where R1b