I read a few articles that state I and J2 are very close genetically. Also that there is an I-J corridor dividing Europe north to south from Scandinavia (nexis of I) to Italy (nexis of J2). There is a new test for the S-22 marker to confirm this. I keep seeing on-line that I is a purely European halpotype and that J is not. Isn't it true that I and J derive from the same ancestor- decendants of I leaving the same area and mutating in Europe to become I while J left from the same place a bit later becoming J2 along the way prior to entry into Europe. It sounds like I and J2 are so closely related that they should be "brothers"- I carrying a northern signature and J2 carrying the southern signature. J2 is not a semitic (Arabid- I saw this on a terrible white supremist site) haplotype if I is not. Also, J split long before the existence of religion. Am I on the wrong track?