zanipolo
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OK with your answers as a whole (good based) but even if a believe that Urnfields cultures was not homogenous, what push you to conclude the Urnfields was only a cultural movement on the only basis of Iberians occupying a previous Urnfield culture zone? I'm sure of nothing and I ask you: do you know if Iberians of Catalunia keep on the Urnfield way of burying?
I ask that because:
1- I red that Urnfields developments could have implied demic movements (even if not big invasions: I think in R1b-U152 in central Italy and western Poland and the possible tiny links between Urnfields of Villanova and of Lusace, some 'corded' phenotypes in western France at the same periods in nevertheless a poor Urnfield region
2- I red at the contrary that iberization of North Catalunia and South Languedoc implied very poor demic movements
waiting to read you, good evening and good brain storm .
I recently read similar from modern historians saying basically than iberians where from murcia to western montpellier, next to them was the ligurians from montpellier to the eastern alps, then next to them was the luburni.
The Ligurian Elisices tribe where neighbours of the iberian Sordones tribe in Languedoc
The iberians mixed with the ligurians in corsica.
This is mid bronze age.
Some historians even say that the iberians, ligurians and luburnians are all from the same tribe.
http://books.google.com.au/books?id=_kMODKN1odwC&pg=PA251&dq=iberians+and+ligurians&hl=en&sa=X&ei=cln0ToqnKvDxmAWbp9moAg&ved=0CDYQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q= ligurians&f=false
and another book
http://books.google.com.au/books?id...Wbp9moAg&ved=0CFAQ6AEwBQ#v=onepage&q=iberians and ligurians&f=false
see page 268