From Anthrogenica (not sure which of these two users is closer to the truth) about 23andMe results of Greeks:
http://www.anthrogenica.com/showthr...ists-in-Greece&p=144047&viewfull=1#post144047
Note that 23andMe does not tell us about very deep ancestry, only about ancestry from the Common Era (so if someone gets any Non-European admixtures in 23andMe, it must be due to gene flow into Europe during post-Hellenistic times):
In any case,
it is obvious that Greeks have a lot of recent, post-Hellenistic (dating back to Roman, Byzantine and Ottoman times) Near Eastern admixture. And we still don't know how much of mixing had been taking place in Hellenistic times.
23andMe simply does not go so far back into the past.
The only way to find out is to examine aDNA from Classical Greece and other periods.
If you really believe the bolded statement, then why is it
OBVIOUS that there was this admixture, and it was highly significant? Why are you insisting over and over again on your agenda driven conclusions, and conclusions not even based on academic papers, but on direct to consumer genomics which are highly questionable, and gedmatch calculator results which are even more questionable.
The genetic profile of anyone tested by 23andme or any other genomic testing outfit is the product of thousands and tens of thousands of years of admixture. The claim that it only covers the last 500 years is nonsense. There is no time limit on these admixtures. If that were the case, we would have to believe that the "Middle Eastern" in Southern Italians, which by the definition of 23andme itself means Anatolian, Iranian, and Caucasus, arrived in Southern Italy in the
1500s. That's the Renaissance, for crying out loud. People were obsessively writing, documenting etc. You think they wouldn't have noticed a population transfer from Turkey or Iran massive enough to account for 15-20% of the genome of some Southern Italians?
When you have to turn to 23andme to support your position you're really scraping the bottom of the barrel.
You might to want to read this blog post from Razib Khan about everything that's wrong with public genomic testing in terms of ancestry, and about how Admixture analysis can be skewed by population choice, whether deliberate or not.
http://nofe.me/razib/WordPress/2017...-could/?utm_source=dlvr.it&utm_medium=twitter
Also, and this is the last time I'm going to repeat it: the people tested by these researchers have all four grandparents from the labeled villages back to
1860-1880. All those exchanges with people from the Pontos region, the Islands, and Anatolia discussed by "Eastara" are
IRRELEVANT because they took place after the turn of the century. What is so difficult to understand about this concept?
You have produced absolutely no data showing large numbers of "Ottomans" in the Peloponnesus, nor that there was any admixture to speak of, which would have been very difficult. You had to marry within your own religion, something that is still the case in Israel, for example. The only option was conversion. Conversion for a Muslim normally meant death so far as I know, so I don't know how Muslims could have been marrying Greeks and being absorbed by the Greek community at this time. Women could be absorbed, but the "Ottomans" were mostly expelled. Could there be some influence? Perhaps, but I highly doubt there is any significance here.
Likewise, you produce no evidence for large numbers of "Byzantines", by which I assume you mean "non-Greek" Byzantines, being settled in the Peloponnesus, or Persian mistresses during the Hellenistic period, for that matter.
Are you one of those people with a crystal ball, or a secret time machine?
As to the Roman Era, I have no idea what you're talking about. You have some historical document that the dastardly Romans settled Iranians there or something?
Am I claiming I know exactly how all this happened? No, I'm not, but my God, this is worse conjecture than Fallermayer. Even he had more facts than this.
In addition, whatever exchanges took place during the Colonization period, or the Hellenization period, or the Classical Era, the Slav "invasions" took place
after that time. They even took place after a good part of the Byzantine Era. So, that would just be more proof that the effect in terms of actual genetic material from the Poles, Russians, etc. was trivial. Get it?
You are also losing track of the fact that this thread is dedicated to a particular paper, which is about the Peloponnesus, and about the amount of Slavic ancestry in the people of that era. Is that clear? Stop going off topic. The genetic relationship between Albanians and Greeks was not addressed in the paper, and is off topic. Everyone but you is staying within those limits. If you continue with this posting of material about Albanians etc., you'll get another infraction.