Here is a summary of the current genetic knowledge regarding ancient ethnic groups. This is based on
Y-chromosomal haplogroups only.
The ancient Slavs
Present-day Slavs are descended from Bronze Age Steppe cultures descended from the Corded Ware culture (including the Catacomb and Srubna cultures), associated with the
R1a-M458 and R1a-Z280 people, as well as the Neolithic population of the Cucuteni-Trypillian culture (
I2a1b-M423). Slavic Europeans belonged primarily to haplogroup R1a and I2. Southern Slavs descended from the Thracians, Dacians and Illyrians have a much higher proportion of I2a1b.
Eastern Europeans from the Danubian basin and the Balkans have also inherited a sizeable percentage of haplogroup E1b1b, G2a, J1, J2b and T from the expansion Neolithic farmers that started from northern Greece 7,000 years ago. These lineages survived at a higher frequency in non-Slavic populations of the Balkans, notably the Albanians, Romanians, Vlachs and Greeks.
The Thracians, Dacians & Illyrians
According to ancient sources, the Thracians were a fusion of Proto-Indo-European Steppe people with the Neolithic inhabitants of the Carpathians (Cucuteni-Trypillian culture). As such they probably belonged to R1a (about 30%), R1b (10%), I2a1b (25-30%), E-V13 (10-15%), G2a, J1, J2a, J2b, and T1a. The Dacians were closely related to the Thracians and would have carried a similar mixture of haplogroups. The Illyrians have more mysterious origins, but judging from the modern haplogroup frequencies in the Dinaric Alps, they surely were predominantly a blend of R1a and I2a1b.
Maciamo, if we are talking only based on dna, isn't that proto Slavs are majority R1a (60%) and instead of giving I2a as their second major group we should rather give it to R1b for the following reasons:
1: If the name slavs came only after the balto-slavic PEI (correct me if im wrong please) then its obvious that it came from corded ware (mostly R1a) and also a slight Yamna (R1b). Then is it logical to say that proto Slavs are today Belarus and west Russia?
2: Because we know were the approximate roots of !2a1 is (current Croatia, Bosnia, West Montenegro, South west Serbia)
before Balto-Slavic PEI (3,400 ypb) they weren't even Slavic at any point?....rather they were predominantly I2a1 with slight E-V13 and others and obviously R1a by lowest at only 5%.
3: Isn't it obvious that proto slavs R1a came from the far north only after 3,000 ybp with balto-slavic PEI and spread PEI to those areas (described above) of I2a1?
Therefore by today language is from the roots of balto-slavic like serbo-croatian (900 ybp), even Slovak language (500 ybp) is of balto-slavic roots, therefore i am supposing that all this locations are not a descendants of proto slavs but they have adopted their language fully. Maybe because small numbers of Slavs from the very north R1a have fully colonized these areas around 1,500 ybp and therefore we have much lower R1a at current Bosnia, Croatia (especially south), west Montenegro and west Serbia.
Even Bulgarians have adopted balto-slavic language (pretty late) as Bulgarian is only 500 ybp, however Bulgarians are not proto Slavs but rather very ancient inhabitants (around the same current locations) with majority of !2a1 then following E-V13 and a bit of J1(before 1,500 ybp). and of course the
same inhabitants should have had their own ancient language....
https://theoreticalecology.wordpres...pansion-of-the-indo-european-language-family/
Therefore i give (suppose) the following major groups to proto Slavs: R1a (60%) with a possible slight R1b (10%)