You realize that the cultures which were succeeded eventually as the Germanic period began show signs of continuity, along with added imports from Celtic influenced areas? We already know how genetically similar the Corded Ware and Bell Beaker people were, these cultural spheres had influence on Scandinavia (Battle-Axe Culture, Funnelbeaker, etc) whether an NWIE dialect came into Scandinavia via CWC or BB is not clear (at least for many, some are more decided), what I mean is we don't see a large deviation of new ancestry appearing. There is no trace of an Iranian settlement in the eras that gave way to the Germanic period.
So we are just going to ignore the fact the Vikings, especially the Swedish-Vikings had a notable involvement in Eastern Europe through to the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea (Kievan Rus')? We're just going to assume that this single Viking woman's ancestry speaks for the entirety of Scandinavia and the Germanic-speaking sphere? We already know that there was a female-biased immigration in the Early Medieval Period. (see Veeramah et al on Early Medieval Bavaria, I can also provide a list of Migration Period, Early Medieval and later Medieval aDNA studies)
It's highly unlikely that the Gutians traveled to the Black Sea and became Getae and Goths (these are two different tribes, Getae are more closely related to the Dacians - these are Thracian people, an entirely different branch of Indo-European, Goths are Germanic speakers, which is clear from examples of their written language). We already know from archaeology that the Goths more than likely came from Wielbark and migrated to Chernyakhov.
Wielbark & Jutland Iron Age genetic link:
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-018-20705-6
Gothic Chernyakhov DNA study
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-019-43183-w
(will you ignore these?)
Where are your "genetic evidences" of this Gutian to Scandinavia migration? You have presented no such evidence. Basal haplogroups, and haplogroups like the R-L664 (which is separated from Eastern clades of R1a (or R1b) by thousands of years and specific defining mutations) are not evidence, R-L664 has an entirely different set of mutations which set it apart from R-Z93. Cite specific studies that show this Gutian migration to Scandinavia/Northern Europe please. Linking a tribe which is shrouded in obscurity to better documented tribes based on similarities in the spelling of their name is not how these things are done. If anything the prevailing theory, which itself is undeveloped and lacks evidence, is the Guti could be more closely connected to the Tocharians, however linking any genetic aspects is not warranted as of yet (your own link you posted even says this), however there is nothing really concrete for this either.
I don't understand this pet theory you have, why do you constantly insist despite evidence already presented throughout various posts that there is some Iranian link to the Germanic group in ancient Europe? Again your linguistic evidences have been refuted time and time again and you deliberately ignore this. I've seen your other posts on Himmerland, Gallic statues, etc. what is this preoccupation?