I hate repeating things, but how does Matzinger explain the -shk in modern Albanian, e.g. shkarpë, shkurre, shkëmb, shkretë, etc.
Similarly, Shkodra cannot be Albanian because of the -sk -shk, but check this, Shkupi is so Proto-Albanian.
Any chance Matzinger considers the fact that maybe established city/settlement names don’t undergo linguistic changes? Roma is still Roma and we don’t even know what the root word means in Latin. Perhaps it’s from Etruscan Ruma (totem for wolf). Does this means the Latins can’t claim Rome?
And again, what if the “proto-Albanians” named the settlements Skodra and Skupi before -sk became -h?
Nobody argues that "shkupi" is proto-Albanian, so you are getting upset based on your own misunderstanding, and not about any argument being made by Matzinger.
The change of Scupi to Shkupi in Albanian is indeed a post-roman phenomenon just like the change of Scodra to Shkodra.
This suggests the name Scupi entered the proto-Albanian vocabulary at the time period that words like Latin. Scuola, Illyrian. Scodra also did.
Meaning this form Scupi entered proto-Albanian only after Romans had entered the Balkans. This might suggest proto-Albanians were even east/north of Shkup in the pre-roman period.
Shkarpë (dry twigs for kindling fire) doesn't come from an Indo-european /sk/ consonant of an inherited ALbanian word, it is a loan from Greek. σκάρφος (skarphos) (dry twigs)
This is a different thing altogether. Shkamb is a loan from latin, like shkollë is from scuola, and shows the roman era sk -> shk phenomenon.
There is no case of indo-european /sk/ that has been found to be /shk/ in Albanian, it is always either a loan or a seperate later construction with an intensive prefix (sh + k) creating a /shk/, never the case that IE. /sk/ produces Albanian. /shk/.
People have been trying to find examples and always end up with loans or later constructions.
If proto-Albanians had named Skodra in a time while /sk/ was still present in Albanian phonetic system, then the accent of Shkodra today would be Hader, since they would have been living there for such a long time that generation after generation the accents would have changed
the form to Hadër.
All the old Gege authors write Natë with an /a/ and Natë is the pan-ALbanian reflex, Notë is most definitely not how most Albanians pronounce it at all, it is totally isolated to regional dialects, and a later development.
proto-Albanians developed an /o/ in the post roman period, but they did not have it in the pre-roman period.
These things have been explained a billion times now, and if you don't understand it, I'm not going to waste my time to explain it for free. I'm not your personal tutor.
If you want to pay me I would be willing to do a private session and one by one explain everything, I too didn't know about sound laws, phonology, etc, a couple of years ago, and can try guide you through to understand why these arguments are being made.
If you do not, then go directly to the sources and read them and find out yourself.