I recall reading the “thesis” of a Hungarian dude that linked Minoans with Uralic languages. I suppose this paper is from the same guy or related to his positions. I don’t think any serious academic in the field of archaeogenetics is going to entertain this theory.
But since this is a forum for casual discussion we can do it without sounding like medical doctors debating charlatans.
The most glaring BS of this “study” is the core tenet of sorts that the homeland of Uralic languages is an area between the urals, the northern coast of Black Sea and the Danube basin. He has it totally backwards. We have strong genetic evidence that Uralic homeland is somewhere in central-southern Siberia, and the languages were originally associated with Neo-Siberian ancestry that spread with the seima-turbino phenomenon. When the maritime Minoan civilization was in full swing around 2000BC (places, trade etc) the Uralic speakers were starting their journey towards northeastern europe. Warriors of the taiga on one hand, maritime palace builders centered in the south Aegean on the other hand.