No R1a in Bronze Age India, Iran, Anatolia, Greece & Italy, who were Indo-Europeans?!
I think genetic science has already proved that R1a has nothing to do with original Indo-Europeans but it seems some people have a strange definition for "Indo-European people", the oldest known evidences for...
Ferdowsi wrote Shahnameh in the 10th century AD, in this period Slavs had no name other than Saklab in the Middle East: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saqaliba
Dr. Niraj Rai says "We have gathered Ancient DNA evidence now" and this evidence proves migration from Steppes to Bronze Age India is a myth.
About Pakistan, there are about 70 samples from 1400-300 BC in the Narasimhan et al study, and there is just one R1a which is believed to be from 500-300...
As Dr. Rai said, without genetic evidences these are just myths, Narasimhan has just found one R1a in the Swat Valley in the north of Pakistan which dates back to 900 BC, another one dates back to 500 BC, whereas we know an offshoot of Indian culture existed in Mitanni kingdom in the north of...
This thread about the genetic studies of Indian geneticists who say migrations from the Russian steppe to Bronze Age India is just a myth, so it is better that we talk about historical facts, not myths.
In the ancient Persian sources the original land of Slavs was in Harahvait (Arachosia) in modern Afghanistan, in Shahnameh Saklab (land of Slavs) was actually a large region in the east of Iran, neighbor to Chin (China) and Hind (India)...
We know Indo-Aryans were in the Middle East in 1700 BC and Narasimhan says steppe-related people were in north of Pakistan in 1000 BC and in north of Kazakhstan in 1700 BC, it seems to be clear that those who came from Kazakhstan to Pakistan were not Indo-Aryans.
In my example Canada=Steppe, Portugal=India and Brazil=Mitanni, by Canada I meant an irrelevant land, some people just want make a relation between the Steppe and India, first they believed that there were migrations from the steppe to India and then from India to the Middle East (Mitanni...
As you read here, "The migration of Arab tribes to North Africa in the 11th century was a major factor in the linguistic and cultural Arabization of the Maghreb region, mainly Beni Hassan, Banu Hilal and Banu Sulaym." Just about Banu Hilal we know they were about 300,000 Arabs accompanied by...
That is a good example but the problem is that Lazaridis and other ones who believe the steppe theory, said before that Portuguese came from Canada to Portugal and then from Portugal to Brazil, and now when they see that there were no migration from Canada to Portugal, they say it came from...
It is really funny to read what Lazaridis says about it on Twitter: https://twitter.com/iosif_lazaridis/status/1345065698482122752?s=20
The new theory seems to be that Indo-Aryan culture didn't originate in the Indian subcontinent!! In fact they were not Indo-Iranians who migrated to India but...
They certainly know the amount of steppe ancestry, it seems they have gathered Ancient DNA evidences which show it couldn't be related to Bronze Age India. When it says a massive migration is a myth, it actually means there isn't even any evidence for a small migration in this period.
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