K36 K36 from Eurogenes

In the study it had the biggest amount of contribution to modern Poles (but it was actual ancestry contribution rather than genetic similarity, I think this is what makes the difference):

"Haplotype donations" is the term they use (not "haplotype similarity"):

image.png


It contributed to modern Poles more than to other populations.

But even this contribution to modern Poles is 1/5 - 1/4 (no more).

Nobody claimed that BR2 is the majority of modern Polish DNA.
 
Your map shows haplotype similarity, not haplotype donations.

In some cases high similarity = high donations, but not always.
 
For example who has more of Spanish ancestry - Peruvians or Poles? The answer is Peruvians.

But who is more genetically similar to Spaniards - Peruvians or Poles? The answer is Poles.

Maybe Austrians are more similar to BR2, but Poles have more of BR2 ancestry.
 
After studying people's results for quite some time, I would rename the following components:

Fennoscandian to Finnish or Finnic (East Finns score 75-80%)
East_Central_Euro to Baltic (Lithuanian score up to 37%; Latvians up to 36%)
French to Celtic (it peaks in the Celtic populations, not only in Bretagne; also in countries who had Celtic history)
East Balkan to Balkan
Near Eastern to something different. This one peaks in Egypt, while Places of reference of this one are dominated by Eastern Med component.
Italian to Central Med
North African could be Berber (although not sure)

Would Central Med be Italic Tribes/Romans or even older? My father scores 35 percent and me 32. Very Atypical. Even for Albanians.
 
Would Central Med be Italic Tribes/Romans or even older? My father scores 35 percent and me 32. Very Atypical. Even for Albanians.

I think it is simply Central Med neolithic component. Predating Italics / Romans.
At first it dominanted all lands near Adriatic Sea. I think Slav migration reduced it in North-West Balkans, but it is still high in Albanians. Why it is so discontinouity now.
 
I think it is simply Central Med neolithic component. Predating Italics / Romans.
At first it dominanted all lands near Adriatic Sea. I think Slav migration reduced it in North-West Balkans, but it is still high in Albanians. Why it is so discontinouity now.

I see. Thanl you. Makes sense. Only thing I wonder, why would we have it even higher than Albanians on average? Especially given our Ydna.
 
In the study it had the biggest amount of contribution to modern Poles (but it was actual ancestry contribution rather than genetic similarity, I think this is what makes the difference):

"Haplotype donations" is the term they use (not "haplotype similarity"):

image.png


It contributed to modern Poles more than to other populations.

But even this contribution to modern Poles is 1/5 - 1/4 (no more).

Nobody claimed that BR2 is the majority of modern Polish DNA.

How do you explain very atypical Polish, Welsh, Tuscan and South Italian affinity on above map:) There is no way Poles and Welshmen, or Polish nad Tuscan could be in one, autosomal cluster. It tell me only she was realy stupid if she believed those map is correct.
 
How do you explain very atypical Polish, Welsh, Tuscan and South Italian affinity on above map:) There is no way Poles and Welshmen, or Polish nad Tuscan could be in one, autosomal cluster. It tell me only she was realy stupid if she believed those map is correct.

It tells me that you've not understood the study, she doesn't even use the term autosomal.

She was really stupid? She was actually a PhD candidate at the Trinity College, Dublin. Where (university) have you got your PhD in genetics, mlukas?
 
@lukas,

Where is it said or implied by the authors that those ethnic groups are in the same genetic cluster? That isn't what they're saying. You have to understand the terms that geneticists use or else you won't understand the papers.
 
@lukas,

Where is it said or implied by the authors that those ethnic groups are in the same genetic cluster? That isn't what they're saying. You have to understand the terms that geneticists use or else you won't understand the papers.

Ok. I have discussion about it on anthrogenica. Here the opinions.


quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by lukaszM
How do you explain very atypical Polish, Welsh, Tuscan and South Italian affinity on above map
smile.gif
I mean red color in those places. There is no way Poles and Welshmen, or Polish and Tuscan, or Polish and Basilicate could be in one, autosomal cluster.
Michał
I need to agree with Tomenable on this. Depending on which specific kind of Y-DNA analysis you are applying, the results may point to different populations. Let's imagine that you have one relatively old ancestral population, for example the Urnfield culture or the Danubian Tumulus culture, and a younger culture that descended from that older culture, for example the Lusatian/Kyjatice culture. Let's then imagine that this younger Lusatian/Kyjatice culture got practically extinct, with only a very small part of its original population contributing to modern populations (mostly in Poland, but occasionally elsewhere, including for example Italy). On the other hand, that older ancestral population (Urnfield or Tumulus) contributed very significantly to many different populations in Europe, mostly in the Upper Danubian (or North Alpine) region but also in the Balkans and in Western Europe. Since BR2 descended from Urnfield/Tumulus but its own descending population got nearly extinct, every test that looks for just an overall similarity (ie. for a proportion of similar ancestry) will point to those modern countries that descend in largest part from Urnfield/Tumulus, and this will include Austria, all of Germany, large part of France, Northern Italy, Western Balkans, and even a part of Britain. On the other hand, when applying the haplotype affinity-based assay based on the BR2 sample from the Lusatian/Kyjatice culture, you will preferentially identify those modern populations that descend "directly" from this younger ancient population, so the time distance from the direct ancestral population was smaller and the haplotypes (ie. the groups of neighboring markers/mutations/SNPs) were more likely to survive intact, instead of being separated by the random recombination events, even though the overall contribution of the BR2-like DNA was relatively small.
This is similar to a situation with the descendants of Thomas Jefferson. When placing all Americans on an autosomal PCA plot, all white people who don't descend from Jefferson will land up much closer to Jefferson than his direct black descendants, while when using the FTDNA Family Finder test (which is a kind of a haplotype-based affinity test) you will preferentially identify those who are his direct descendants (or descendants of his very close relatives).


quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by Michał

This is similar to a situation with the descendants of Thomas Jefferson. When placing all Americans on an autosomal PCA plot, all white people who don't descend from Jefferson will land up much closer to Jefferson than his direct black descendants, while when using the FTDNA Family Finder test (which is a kind of a haplotype-based affinity test) you will preferentially identify those who are his direct descendants (or descendants of his very close relatives).

lukaszM
But autosomally (in the sense of autosomal components, even those basic like WHG, EEF, SSA, EAst-Asian etc.) those white Americans are really more close to Jefferson than his mulatto descendants. It's true.
I'm really doubt BR2 direct descendants are really so numerous to be present in such large quantity to be substantial portion of Polish ancestry. It was some Kyatice harem where BR2 sultan had 500 wives?
I have much simpler explanation. BR2 was chosen by ancient oracle because mediated by RISE598 gives more or less something comparable to present Poles. Simply becasue of lack of directly similar sample to Polish population.
Austria + Lithuania /2 = south-central Poland.



quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by lukaszM
But autosomally (in the sense of autosomal components, even those basic like WHG, EEF, SSA, EAst-Asian etc.) those white Americans are really more close to Jefferson than his mulatto descendants. It's true.

Michał
This is correct, and also the modern Austrians, Germans and French people are "autosomally" much closer to BR2 than modern Poles, in case you discuss this question from this very perspective. However, there is also no doubt that those black descendants of Jefferson are his "much closer relatives" (in the genealogical sense) than the vast majority of modern white Americans, and the same might apply to modern Poles and BR2.


quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by lukaszM
I'm really doubt BR2 direct descendants are really so numerous to be present in such large quantity to be substantial portion of Polish ancestry.


Michał
You might be right about it, as there is a substantial risk that those results for the haplotype affinity-based analysis show only some kind of statistical noise (just like it frequently happens with the Family Finder results for some putative "remote cousins"). However, the relatively good quality of BR2 suggests its affinity to modern Poles might be real, and we won't be able to definitely verify it until some good quality Polish samples for the Lusatian culture are available (although the incoming results for Przeworsk and Wielbark should also be helpful in this respect).

quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by lukaszM
I have much simpler explanation. BR2 was chosen by ancient oracle becasue mediated by RISE598 gives more or less something comaprable to present Poles. Simply becasue of lack of directly similar sample to Polsih population.
Austria + Lithuania /2 = south-central Poland.


Michał
This might be true, although I suspect that what affects those oracle results most strongly is rather a lack of an ancient sample from a yet unknown BR2-like Iron Age (or Roman times) population that significantly contributed to the Early Slavs. Anyway, I'm afraid that all this has nothing to do with those haplotype-based affinity analysis results, as these two tests investigate two very different aspects of the BR2-related ancestry.
 
Also Michał's opinion about BR2

Could it be that BR2 admixture in Poland represents the Lugians?

But what about BR2 admixture in the rest of Eastern Europe?


It seems that there were at least two or three ways in which the ancient BR2-like populations could have contributed to the Slavic ethnogenesis:

1) A relatively small BR2-like population that probably resembled modern Austrians (these could have been the Bastarnians who are suspected of being a Germanic-Celtic-Dacian-Sarmatian mixture) has merged with a RISE598-like Pre-Proto-Slavic population that resembled ancient/modern Balts, so this particular kind of BR2-related ancestry is seen in all Slavs, although on a relatively low (or at best moderate) level.

2) Another group of BR2-like populations lived in the Carpathian-Balkan region, so these people became a major part of the substratum for the incoming Southern Slavs. This signal is relatively strong (because the local population was quite large) but it probably derives mostly from a relatively old non-Lusatian Danubian population that somehow contributed to Kyjatice/BR2 (so it is not as easily detected in the haplotype affinity analysis).

3) Yet another BR2-like population could have lived in ancient Poland and was likely associated with the Lusatian culture (thus resembling the Kyjatice variant most strongly). This population could have contributed first to the East Germanic populations of Przeworsk and Wielbark, and then to the incoming Western Slavs (mostly Poles). This particular BR2-like signal is relatively low when compared to the two signals mentioned above (due to the two-step dilution associated with significant "population replacements" in Poland), which is very well seen on the lukaszM's map, but this kind of ancestry is best detected using the haplotype affinity analysis, and this is because the Lusatians were more closely related to Kyjatice than the ancestors of Bastarnians or the ancestors of the pre-Slavic Balkan people.
 
@Lukas,
I hope it's all clear now as he went to a great deal of trouble to provide a very nuanced and learned explanation in terms of Polish genetics.

Generally, the explanation is the following, as has been stated:

" Anyway, I'm afraid that all this has nothing to do with those haplotype-based affinity analysis results, as these two tests investigate two very different aspects of the BR2-related ancestry."

From a personal perspective, what interests me most is how and why we have hotspots in Italy in eastern Liguria/northwest Tuscany, western Sicily, Basilicata, and what looks like a tiny bit of Calabria, but that's another discussion.
 
East Central Euro peaks in RISE598, an Early Iron / Late Bronze sample from Sudovia (Lithuania-Poland border). Central Euro component peaks in ancient Wielbark culture samples (Iron Age Poland), in Early Medieval samples from Bohemia and Poland, as well as in modern Poles (but modern Poles score a lower % than ancient samples). Eastern Euro peaks close to the Ural Mountains (which happens to be the eastern border of Europe based on geographical and genetic common sense - Ural is the main barrier to gene flow in this region).

Tomenable how do you see the relationship between Rise98, Wielbark and my "North Sea Germanic" result? Just puzzling.

My K36 Ancient as figured out by you :)

"1. CLOSEST SINGLE ITEM DISTANCES" (rounded results)
1. CWC_Sweden_RISE98 10,8
2. EMA_Northumbria_NO3423 11,7
3. IA_Sweden_RISE174 12,1
4. CWC_Sweden_RISE94 12,1
5. BA_Unetice_Czechia_RISE577 12,8
6. IA_Celto-German_6DRIF3 13,4
7. IA_Celto-German_3DRIF16 14,2
8. BB_Germany_RISE563 14,3
 
Why is East Asian highest in that small area west of Kazakhstan?
And why is South Chinese highest in the northwest region of China?
 
Why is East Asian highest in that small area west of Kazakhstan?

Those are Kalmykians: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kalmykia
The Kalmyks, who form the majority of the republic and for whom the region is named, descend from the Oirat Mongols that migrated from Dzungaria in 1607 and established the Kalmyk Khanate (1630–1724) before they were eventually incorporated into the Russian Empire in the context of the Russian conquest of the Caucasus.

And why is South Chinese highest in the northwest region of China?

Because he doesn't have any samples south/east of that point. Northwest China is the easternmost sample he has mapped
 
Thanks! But I don't quite get why he calls it "South Chinese"...yes there may be overlap, but I don't get why he chose that label.
 
Thanks! But I don't quite get why he calls it "South Chinese"...yes there may be overlap, but I don't get why he chose that label.

Because the reference samples are from South of China and the component peaks in Southern China (those maps you see do not show distributions of that region)
 
Can anyone give me a link to population references? For example what does "Near Eastern" mean and in what populations is found at a higher %?
 
Born in Turkey. Father's ancestry is Bosnian from Mostar, Bosnia & Herzegovina. (emigrated to Turkey about 120 years ago):

Italian14.87
North_Caucasian11.31
Near_Eastern9.24
East_Med9.13
Central_Euro8.13
Armenian5.87
East_Central_Euro5.22
West_Med5.05
South_Central_Asian4.99
West_Caucasian3.93
Eastern_Euro3.25
Arabian2.86
East_Balkan2.53
South_Chinese2.04
Basque1.96
Fennoscandian1.91
Siberian1.66
French1.65
North_Sea1.39
Volga-Ural1.37
Amerindian0.66
Iberian0.45
Malayan0.23
Oceanian0.15
East_Asian0.13
 
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