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Anyway, we do get some information about similarity of various areas to the Rathlin samples, and while Spain has more than Italy, it's pretty faint.
Actually those who have more similarity to the Rathlin 1 sample are the Tuscans, even slightly more than Spanish.
The modern populations who "received the most haplotypes" from Rathlin1.
Tuscan 29.202
Spanish 28.613
That could explain why I score high with Northern Italians and sometimes Tuscans with the Oracle. That's very interesting, even in DNA tests Italian (or anything else grouped with Italian) is the 2nd highest.That's a good point, Ygorbr, as far as the people who actually went into Spain and Italy. We need more proximate ancient dna samples to compare not only to the steppe, but to Iberian and Italian and Balkan MN people, and to modern people of those areas, which is why I said they might have been as much as half-steppe.
Anyway, the "steppe" in southern Europe, 26% in my case, 29% in Adeo's, for example, wouldn't only have come from "Insular Celtic" or Rathlin related peoples. It would have come from the Italics, Ligures, Veneti, part of the ancestry of the Iberians etc., as well as the later Germanic tribes and whatever they brought with them. That might all be more related to the Hungarian Bronze Age part of the graphic.
.
1 | Galicia (1000Genomes) | 7.63 |
2 | Extremadura (1000Genomes) | 8.36 |
3 | Portuguese (Dodecad) | 8.37 |
4 | Baleares (1000Genomes) | 8.56 |
5 | N_Italian (Dodecad) | 8.76 |
6 | North_Italian (HGDP) | 9.89 |
7 | Castilla_Y_Leon (1000Genomes) | 10.85 |
8 | Murcia (1000Genomes) | 10.96 |
9 | Cataluna (1000Genomes) | 11.72 |
10 | Canarias (1000Genomes) | 12.01 |
That could explain why I score high with Northern Italians and sometimes Tuscans with the Oracle. That's very interesting, even in DNA tests Italian (or anything else grouped with Italian) is the 2nd highest.
E.G (Dodecad K12B) (I can give out more Oracles)
1 Galicia (1000Genomes) 7.63 2 Extremadura (1000Genomes) 8.36 3 Portuguese (Dodecad) 8.37 4 Baleares (1000Genomes) 8.56 5 N_Italian (Dodecad) 8.76 6 North_Italian (HGDP) 9.89 7 Castilla_Y_Leon (1000Genomes) 10.85 8 Murcia (1000Genomes) 10.96 9 Cataluna (1000Genomes) 11.72 10 Canarias (1000Genomes) 12.01
1 | N_Italian (Dodecad) | 6.7 |
2 | O_Italian (Dodecad) | 7.36 |
3 | TSI (HapMap) | 7.63 |
4 | Tuscan (HGDP) | 7.95 |
5 | Tuscan (Henn) | 8.05 |
6 | North_Italian (HGDP) | 8.31 |
7 | Tuscan (Xing) | 8.75 |
8 | C_Italian (Dodecad) | 12.33 |
9 | IBS (1000Genomes) | 14.51 |
10 | Portuguese (Dodecad) | 14.94 |
11 | Sardinian (HGDP) | 15.18 |
12 | Spaniards (Behar) | 15.3 |
13 | Spanish (Dodecad) | 15.44 |
14 | S_Italian_Sicilian (Dodecad) | 18.01 |
Rathlin type ancestry which came into Italy largely from Gaul.
In my opinion Rathlin type ancestry came into Italy with the migrations from the Urnfield cultures (proto-Villanovans, Scamozzina, Canegrate, Golasecca...). It's a Bronze age sample, after all.
Oh I was thinking it was from the similar invader/settlers (Mostly Romans) who went to both Italy and Spain even sort of from the Aragonese/Spanish empire (Milan was a part of it). However this information for newbie like me about stuff like this is understandable so that answers about why I get a high score with Northern Italians. Very InterestingOh, I believe you; I see it in my own results. On dodecad I get slightly different percentages depending on the calculator, but the Spanish populations are usually way up there, and if not them, Balkan populations. It all has to do with genetic ties between Southern European areas, imo, shared ancestry that is very old.
1 N_Italian (Dodecad) 6.7 2 O_Italian (Dodecad) 7.36 3 TSI (HapMap) 7.63 4 Tuscan (HGDP) 7.95 5 Tuscan (Henn) 8.05 6 North_Italian (HGDP) 8.31 7 Tuscan (Xing) 8.75 8 C_Italian (Dodecad) 12.33 9 IBS (1000Genomes) 14.51 10 Portuguese (Dodecad) 14.94 11 Sardinian (HGDP) 15.18 12 Spaniards (Behar) 15.3 13 Spanish (Dodecad) 15.44 14 S_Italian_Sicilian (Dodecad) 18.01
Not all Italians get such high relatedness to Iberians. I think northwestern Italians have a particular affinity for Iberians because of 1) higher than average Italian percentages of shared "Western" farmer ancestry, which you can see on the Cassidy graphic above as "Irish" Neolithic, and 2) Rathlin type ancestry which came into Italy largely from Gaul.
Of course, all Italians and Spaniards would also share steppe (and Central European MN ancestry) from more "Hungarian Bronze Age" type migrations, and from the eastern Neolithic as well.
Then there is some shared J2 ancestry and Gothic ancestry.
I've always thought that the major differences were higher NA in Spain, versus more Caucasus in Italy, but perhaps even more importantly, more WHG in Iberia. They survived better there, I think.
Still, a great many similarities: Iberia is often my closest or second closest area after Italians, even before Southern Italians for me.
Another interesting thing is that Ralph and Coop figured it out with IBD analysis quite a few years ago (2013). It's too bad they're not concentrating on human population genetics any more. Despite the large similarities in genetic make-up, it's all old, really ancient, certainly not in the Roman era.
http://journals.plos.org/plosbiology/article?id=10.1371/journal.pbio.1001555
"There is relatively little common ancestry shared between the Italian peninsula and other locations, and what there is seems to derive mostly from longer ago than 2,500 ya. An exception is that Italy and the neighboring Balkan populations share small but significant numbers of common ancestors in the last 1,500 years"
"Patterns for the Iberian peninsula are similar, with both Spain and Portugal showing very few common ancestors with other populations over the last 2,500 years. However, the rate of IBD sharing within the peninsula is much higher than within Italy—during the last 1,500 years the Iberian peninsula shares fewer than two genetic common ancestors with other populations, compared to roughly 30 per pair within the peninsula; Italians share on average only about eight with each other during this period."
Assuming that all Indo-European genetics had its origin in the steppe, a rather dubious thing, especially for the centum languages? What does the steppe have to do with the Celts? Where are the Celtic toponymy in the steppe? What Celtic texts do we find in the steppe? if they are going to say that there was no writing, but of course we are joining the steppe to the Celtic and have nothing to do, the classical people never said that there were Celts in the steppe, they referred to Gaul (France) and Spain, even if the Celtic people had part of their ancestors in the steppe was long before considered as such, since Celtic not only genetics, is culture, is language, etc., which by the way the difference between the north of Spain and France in stage component is very reduced.
Therefore you can not know the percentage of celticity of a person relating it to its steppe component because they have nothing to do, it is as absurd as a calculator that tells you the percentage of Romano has a current Spanish.
The right would be based on what the classical world called Celtic and where the toponymy and Celtic texts, France, Spain, Northern Italy, in the moment before the invasion of the Roman empire remove an autosomic component and from here a calculator of the celticity, although I have always thought that all this aspect of the genetics is very manipulable and on the other hand in the calculator K36 very interesting things are observed.
Southern French, Iberians and North Italians can plot similar, due to shared Mesolithic ancestry. I don't think there's a significant Celtic admixture in Spain as we know Iberians didn't change a lot since the Neolithic compared to Portuguese Neolithic samples. Maybe 5-20% extra Celtic, Corded Ware admixture and also 5-20% Moorish, Phoenician, Jewish admix in Andalusia and Portugal compared to Neolithic Spanish samples.
What do the Celts have to do with the steppe?
I understand that the Celtic peoples are peoples of Indo-European origin who were already in the West and we have news with the classical world and assuming that they were originally from the steppe, these people have traveled throughout Europe and are in the western part , having mixed with other peoples in this journey.
Therefore it is not true, nor in the case that all the Indo-European origin was in the steppe, that Celtic = steppe.
The same would happen if the Indo-European were a Neolithic language from Anatolia, Therefore it is not true that Celtic = Anatolia.
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