Taranis
Elite member
Let me say this (this discussion has been made before, many times over):
- the Atlanticist School (which seeks the origin of the Celtic languages in the Atlantic Façade) fails to explain the close relationship of the Celtic languages with the Italic languages, and also it fails to explain the absence of west-to-east movements out of the Atlantic region into Central Europe.
- the Celtic languages clearly did not originate on the Iberian penninsula, since it sported three non-IE language in Antiquity: Basque-Aquitanian, Iberian and Tartessian, as well as a non-Celtic but Indo-European language (Lusitanian).
- the Celts may not have been the first Indo-Europeans on the Iberian penninsula, either (see Lusitanians), and there is evidence for a Lusitanian substrate in Gallaecia.
- the Atlanticist School does have a point so in so far as Hallstatt and La-Tene alone do not explain the presence of Celtic languages on the Iberian penninsula. (the "Classicist" hypothesis links the spread of the Celtic languages to Hallstatt and La-Tene alone, which obviously doesn't work).
- Both the classicist and the atlanticist hypothesis fail to explain the existence of the Lepontic language (the oldest attested unambiguously Celtic language), which was a distinct Celtic language that is linked with the Golasecca Culture in northern Italy, and which in itself was an offshot of the earlier Urnfield Culture (just like Hallstatt).
- The Classicist hypothesis does have a point in so far as Hallstatt and La-Tene verymuch explain the spread of the Gaulish language (as well as it's eastern relatives - Noric and Galatian). That the Hallstatt people were Celtic-speaking furthermore explains the numerous borrowings of Celtic words into Proto-Germanic.
- My opinion is that neither the Atlantic Bronze Age nor the Urnfield Culture were linguistically homogenous, but that both regions were in parts Celtic-speaking (but also included significant areas which spoke non-Celtic, and in the case of the former, non-Indo-European languages).
- One detail frequently overlooked is the situation on the British Isles in Antiquity: first, there is the fact that there is a complete absence of non-Celtic languages on the British Isles. The second is the fact that Britain apparently was entirely P-Celtic in Antiquity. While the exact position of Pictish is uncertain, it is clear that it too was a P-Celtic language akin to Brythonic and Gaulish.
- the Atlanticist School (which seeks the origin of the Celtic languages in the Atlantic Façade) fails to explain the close relationship of the Celtic languages with the Italic languages, and also it fails to explain the absence of west-to-east movements out of the Atlantic region into Central Europe.
- the Celtic languages clearly did not originate on the Iberian penninsula, since it sported three non-IE language in Antiquity: Basque-Aquitanian, Iberian and Tartessian, as well as a non-Celtic but Indo-European language (Lusitanian).
- the Celts may not have been the first Indo-Europeans on the Iberian penninsula, either (see Lusitanians), and there is evidence for a Lusitanian substrate in Gallaecia.
- the Atlanticist School does have a point so in so far as Hallstatt and La-Tene alone do not explain the presence of Celtic languages on the Iberian penninsula. (the "Classicist" hypothesis links the spread of the Celtic languages to Hallstatt and La-Tene alone, which obviously doesn't work).
- Both the classicist and the atlanticist hypothesis fail to explain the existence of the Lepontic language (the oldest attested unambiguously Celtic language), which was a distinct Celtic language that is linked with the Golasecca Culture in northern Italy, and which in itself was an offshot of the earlier Urnfield Culture (just like Hallstatt).
- The Classicist hypothesis does have a point in so far as Hallstatt and La-Tene verymuch explain the spread of the Gaulish language (as well as it's eastern relatives - Noric and Galatian). That the Hallstatt people were Celtic-speaking furthermore explains the numerous borrowings of Celtic words into Proto-Germanic.
- My opinion is that neither the Atlantic Bronze Age nor the Urnfield Culture were linguistically homogenous, but that both regions were in parts Celtic-speaking (but also included significant areas which spoke non-Celtic, and in the case of the former, non-Indo-European languages).
- One detail frequently overlooked is the situation on the British Isles in Antiquity: first, there is the fact that there is a complete absence of non-Celtic languages on the British Isles. The second is the fact that Britain apparently was entirely P-Celtic in Antiquity. While the exact position of Pictish is uncertain, it is clear that it too was a P-Celtic language akin to Brythonic and Gaulish.
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