Anthony Appleyard
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Do any of you have recent news about an Indo-European-related email group called Cybalist?
At a website named indo-european.info I found an online textbook for people to learn Indo-European. The version taught is the later type when the laryngeals were no longer spoken as consonants. It uses 'q' for "k^w" and 'c' for "g^w". I welcome all comments about it.
A few days ago I found that archaeologists have found remains of the Indo-European speakers :: see the Wikipedia page "Yamnaya culture". At one time they occupied an area similar to the modern Ukraine.
How do linguists pronounce the PIE laryngeals, when they need to? My own belief, aided by someone else's guess that I read, is:-
* H1 :: glottal stop
* H1a :: 'h' as in "horse"
* H2 :: Like the Arabic letter ح , voiceless epiglottal fricative, as in "Muħammad" (the prophet)
* H3 :: Like the Arabic letter ع , voiced epiglottal fricative, sometimes called "ayin".
This seems to match evidence that H2 tends to give nearby vowels an A-flavour and H3 tends to give nearby vowels an O-flavour.
That H3 was voiced, seems to match the derivation "pipH3eti" = "he drinks" becoming Sanskrit "pibati" and Latin "bibit".
What is the usual explanation of the origin of the Greek (particularly Homeric) noun suffixes "-thi" = 'at' and "-then" = 'from'? Recently I unexpectedly came across similar suffixes in Turkish, for example "köy, köyde, köyden " = 'village, in the village, from the village'. Where were the proto-Turks in Yamnaya times, and in Greek Mycenaean times?
At a website named indo-european.info I found an online textbook for people to learn Indo-European. The version taught is the later type when the laryngeals were no longer spoken as consonants. It uses 'q' for "k^w" and 'c' for "g^w". I welcome all comments about it.
A few days ago I found that archaeologists have found remains of the Indo-European speakers :: see the Wikipedia page "Yamnaya culture". At one time they occupied an area similar to the modern Ukraine.
How do linguists pronounce the PIE laryngeals, when they need to? My own belief, aided by someone else's guess that I read, is:-
* H1 :: glottal stop
* H1a :: 'h' as in "horse"
* H2 :: Like the Arabic letter ح , voiceless epiglottal fricative, as in "Muħammad" (the prophet)
* H3 :: Like the Arabic letter ع , voiced epiglottal fricative, sometimes called "ayin".
This seems to match evidence that H2 tends to give nearby vowels an A-flavour and H3 tends to give nearby vowels an O-flavour.
That H3 was voiced, seems to match the derivation "pipH3eti" = "he drinks" becoming Sanskrit "pibati" and Latin "bibit".
What is the usual explanation of the origin of the Greek (particularly Homeric) noun suffixes "-thi" = 'at' and "-then" = 'from'? Recently I unexpectedly came across similar suffixes in Turkish, for example "köy, köyde, köyden " = 'village, in the village, from the village'. Where were the proto-Turks in Yamnaya times, and in Greek Mycenaean times?
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