Pax Augusta
Elite member
can you back this up somehow?
also i think in the context of westeurasians there aren't really any huge differences. OP's point was probably that the originial indo europeans could have resembled modern iranians. that's not impossible and maybe even if a modern euopean saw them they would probably not think they are from europe.
Assuming that the linguistic ancestor of Proto-Indo-European (not Indo-European, which is later phase) is due to a population that was CHG or Iran_N, here we are talking about a population that lived thousands of years before the so-called Indo-Europeans (who were not an ethnicity or a people in the modern sense of the term), and who were in any case genetically different from the Eneolithic population of the Yamnaya culture, which is the one to which the Late PIE output is attributed.
It is certainly possible that some Etruscans had adopted Latin language but Latin was the original language of the Romans.
It is obvious that there were some Etruscans who spoke Latin, just as it is possible that some Etruscans spoke Greek or a Celtic language or Venetic. In all developed civilizations there were probably individuals who were bilingual.
Romans are none other than the inhabitants of Rome, a city on the territory of the Latins, the Latium vetus, bordering the territories of the Etruscans and Sabines. Latin was spoken in Rome because the Latins were most likely the predominant group.