zanipolo
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there is no proof if it even existed in italy as west germanic except for plcenames and some personnel names. there is not even detailed evidence on when it disappeared, ...some say 7th century , some 10th centuryThis is a fallacy, because no matter how a name is rendered, you don't change the name in accordance to Germanic sound laws. If the Langobardic names in the medieval were no adhereing to the second germanic sound shift, scholars likely would have noted that. What incentive would scholars of the time have had to render names according to the Second Germanic Sound Shift if the Langobardic language itself didn't apply to that? Occam's razor does not agree with your interpretation.
presumably ! well, the only evidence was of wertz and a few others who only gathered info around Austria , which as I asked before , who taught who high german, the bavarians to the lombards or the lombards to the bavariansI've already provided evidence, both from Langobardic names and from modern Italic loanwords which are presumably of Langobardic origin. I admit that the evidence is scarce, but you seem to be willing to reject all available evidence that exists. At this point I would like to reiterate that there is no evidence that the Langobards spoke an East Germanic language.
granted , there is no evidence of east-germanic either, but there neighbours except for the westernly ones , where all noted as east-germanic language
By your logic, the Langobards should have been speaking a North Germanic (ie, Scandinavian) language. But really, you are confusing the time frame here: the Langobards are attested by Strabo and Tacitus in the 1st century AD in northern Germany. At this time, the Germanic languages were not differenciated yet into the later branches: this occured only by the 4th century AD. Due to their location at that time, there's little other possibility than to assume that they spoke what would become West Germanic. So even if the Langobards migrated to the area of northern Germany from Scandinavia, by they time they did, they would have either spoken Proto-Germanic, or perhaps even Pre-Proto-Germanic.
so you are defining east-germanic only between the oder and vistula,......you dont think there was any between the elbe and oder , like the carini tribe as n example.
is north german = west-germanic?
what about the frisian areas 9 freisa, ostfriesia, oldenburg, holstein west are they not west-germanic?. are they similar to the longobard?