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Phylogenetic analysis of the enigmatic Kalash population in Pakistan

Moja

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Anand Venkatraman: https://*****/Anand_Venkatram/status/1926355407645098449

"A truly intriguing paper. One of the most archaic and isolated Indoaryan-speaking groups has negligible R1a, Instead, they’re mostly Iranian Neolithic/fertile crescent/Caucasus Y haplogroups"

Kalash people: https://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kalash_people

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An ethnic Kalasha man wearing traditional hat.
 
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I've had some difficulty to understand their inrerpopulations distances statements.
Concerning Y-haplo's, I think we cannot rely on their current distribution to establish their links to other pop's because geographic isolation and small number favour drift.
&: I'm tired of these pics of light eyes or light haired people in supposed dark pop's (cherry picking)... Even if Kalash are a bit lighter than their neighbouring pop's. BTW Tadjiks of the lower lands have (or had in the 50's) some light pigmented people too.
 
Basal Indo-Iranian languages were not related to latecomer R1a or to the steppe admixtured people. Ancient Iranian languages and Proto-Indo-European were native and a continuum from the Southern Caucasus, N Mesopotamia, NW Iran, S Caspian Sea (core area), BMAC, Central Asia, Kalash.
 
First it was said that ancient Persians and Parthians had steppe ancestry but the Genetic studies showed that they had no steppe but just Iranian ancestry: Ancient DNA indicates 3,000 years of genetic continuity in the Northern Iranian Plateau, from the Copper Age to the Sassanid Empire

Then it was said the real Iranian-speaking people were Scythians/Sarmatians and modern Ossetians, the descendants of the ancient Scythians/Sarmatians, had steppe ancestry but the Genetic studies showed that they had also Iranian ancestry: Genetic evidence concerning the origins of South and North Ossetians "Ossetians are significantly more similar to Iranian groups than to Caucasian groups. We suggest that a common origin of Ossetians from Iran."

Then it was said that Sogdians and Central Asian Iranian-people had steppe ancestry, but the Genetic studies showed Yaghnobis in the Sughd province of Tajikistan had also Iranain ancestry: Genetic continuity of Indo-Iranian speakers since the Iron Age in southern Central Asia "The ancient individuals of southern Central Asia (Neolithic Bronze Age and Iron Age) follow a cline stretching from Neolithic Iranian individuals (Iran_N) to present-day Iranians and Yaghnobis."

Then it was said that Indo-Aryans had steppe ancestry!!
 
I've had some difficulty to understand their inrerpopulations distances statements.
Concerning Y-haplo's, I think we cannot rely on their current distribution to establish their links to other pop's because geographic isolation and small number favour drift.
&: I'm tired of these pics of light eyes or light haired people in supposed dark pop's (cherry picking)... Even if Kalash are a bit lighter than their neighbouring pop's. BTW Tadjiks of the lower lands have (or had in the 50's) some light pigmented people too.
Basal Indo-Iranian languages were not related to latecomer R1a or to the steppe admixtured people. Ancient Iranian languages and Proto-Indo-European were native and a continuum from the Southern Caucasus, N Mesopotamia, NW Iran, S Caspian Sea (core area), BMAC, Central Asia, Kalash.
Nothing is carved in the marmor yet, but your hypothesis (and the new mainstream consensus) could be the better one.
What if in place of eastern Steppes to South Caspian transfert of languages it would be the contrary? Some physical anthropology which can be more precise than auDNA sometimes, found physical ties of the BA Steppes tribes with on one side to northerneastern Europe pop's and on another , spite lighter, ties with a people of the southeastern shores of the Caspain see. Others studies seemed already to found an early introgression in eastern Steppes of roughly said 'indo-iranian' types, but here i don't remember the periods. the first ones (S-E Caspian) could have imported into Steppes dialects of the Indo-Iranian before to create newer dialects. Here a linguistic knowledge about the breaking into Iranian and Indian dialects (time and place) would be needed, whicht I hav'nt. Nothing excludes a backwards move of some dialects so North to South (?).
 
I add I 've no religion about the Indo-Anatolian origin place or about the PIE origin place.
About this survey which speaks of "continuity" in Iran, it's like other papers about "continuity" elsewhere: in fact the title is challenged by the detail of the studies: almost always there has been changes and newcomers, sometimes leaving stable input, sometimes showing PARTIAL absorbtion by preceding pop's. This survey doesn't make exception. Concerning Iran the samples are still to scarce. There is no diachronic continuity in every place, only spots here and there.
BTW the admixture table doesn't use the habitual basis which could help.
 
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