Here I'm going to play the devil's advocate to anyone putting forth that the Bible condones slavery.
I'd like to get some background info on the common slavery practices of that day, not only of Israel's, but also of the nations surrounding them.
In some ways, when one actually gets down and discusses ethics, it is difficult to avoid the point that ethics was generally what the collective whole felt was wrong, so if slavery was never viewed as wrong by any of the nations...
Second, these laws are to govern a nation. The setting of limits may not be at all condoning slavery, just as a parent telling their child that if they must sleep around, they really should use a condom probably isn't condoning the kid's sleeping around.
Exodus 21:20-21 "And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for he is his money [property]."
How else could one punish slaves? One cannot fine them or acquire their property, as they have neither. Neither can one make them work in reparation, for they already work for free.
Perhaps the idea wasn't to beat them to within an inch of their life, but that it sometimes happened within a nation of people. How would that be regulated, except through an imperfect letter of the law in which to judge whether someone had to be punished or not?
Certainly we can see that the letter of the law in even the developed nations can supposedly 'condone' a lot of less then fair actions, such as some of the lawsuits we see in America.
Would we say that American leaders condoned unfair lawsuits?
Exodus 21:26-27 "And if a man smite the eye of his servant, or the eye of his maid, that it perish; he shall let him go free for his eye's sake. And if he smite out his manservant's tooth, or his maidservant's tooth; he shall let him go free for his tooth's sake."
This seems also a letter of the law. It seems one of the more humane laws.
Exodus 21:1-4: "If thou buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."
Legalities. How else would one regulate these kind of cases (saying that slavery were just a part of the culture, and wouldn't go away even if one tried to make it go away)?
Deuteronomy 15:12-18: "And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee.And when thou sendest him out free from thee, thou shalt not let him go away empty: Thou shalt furnish him liberally out of thy flock, and out of thy floor, and out of thy winepress: of that wherewith the LORD thy God hath blessed thee thou shalt give unto him."
Sounds somewhat fair as well, given the circumstances.
Exodus 21:7: "And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do."
Why wouldn't she go out as menservants do? Is this a law protecting the maidservants?
Just out of curiousity, could selling a daughter into slavery in those days actually be seen as compassionate to the daughters? Like in
Memoirs of a Geisha, perhaps some families just didn't have the money to even feed their daughters anymore.
Leviticus 25:44-46: "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." (NIV)
Ummmm.... actually I can think of no way to rationalize this law.
Leviticus 25:48-53: "After that he is sold he may be redeemed again; one of his brethren may redeem him: Either his uncle, or his uncle's son, may redeem him, or any that is nigh of kin unto him of his family may redeem him; or if he be able, he may redeem himself. And he shall reckon with him that bought him from the year that he was sold to him unto the year of jubilee: and the price of his sale shall be according unto the number of years, according to the time of an hired servant shall it be with him."
Perhaps slavery was in part to ensure that food and shelter were provided in times of economical hardship. There isn't enough work for hire for all in the area, and the family just doesn't have the money to provide for everyone. Later, when they get into some money again, they are then able to redeem the family member they had to sell into slavery.
Exodus 21:8: "If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money."
Sounds like slaves could be forced to marry their masters. If the man, after promising marriage (marriage meant she would be treated as wife rather than a slave, and that she would get all the fod, clothing, and perhaps 'duties of honor' that came along with marriage), decides he doesn't want her anymore, it sounds like he is to give her back to her family without a price of redemption. Promising her status, freedom, and a better position, then recanting the promise, and then selling her off to a nation for profit was just too much for the leaders of that day to stomach.
A slave given to a son in marriage is to be treated just as a daughter. Sounds alright.
I don't know what 'duty of marriage' is being talked about here. Some duties might be seen as an honor. So the slave woman taken as a wife shall continue to recieve the same amount of food and clothing even after the man takes on another wife. Sounds alright as well.
Leviticus 19:20-22: "And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a bondmaid, betrothed to an husband, and not at all redeemed, nor freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to death, because she was not free. And he shall bring his trespass offering unto the LORD, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, even a ram for a trespass offering. And the priest shall make an atonement for him with the ram of the trespass offering before the LORD for his sin which he hath done: and the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him.":
Just remembering, the punishment for a free man and a free woman committing adultery was a stoning. If the woman was in a populated area when she was 'raped', she was to be stoned, for she could've raised her voice for help. If she were in the country, she wasn't to be stoned.
A slave woman could also raise her voice in objection, but perhaps the law recognized it was difficult for the slave women to oppose her master's wishes, and only administered a scourge for not keeping herself pure until marriage.
Deuteronomy 23:15-16: "Thou shalt not deliver unto his master the servant which is escaped from his master unto thee: He shall dwell with thee, even among you, in that place which he shall choose in one of thy gates, where it liketh him best: thou shalt not oppress him."
First reading this, this also sounds alright, although my brain isn't working well now, and I can't get it around all those 'thous' and 'thees' and negatives.