spongetaro
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As much as 75% of Iberia was likely POPULATED by Celts or Celtiberians
Can you tell me where I can found more iron age demographic data ? I guess census was very accurate at that time
As much as 75% of Iberia was likely POPULATED by Celts or Celtiberians
Yes. My opinion about Lusitanian is that it was a proto-Celtic language (early form of celtic) but culturally the lusitanians can be considered fully celtic, since they had different elements considered as such, and were surrounded and influenced by celtic peoples, in the south (Celtici), east (Celtiberians), north (Gallaecians). One example of this cultures is the human sacrificies, when Diodorus describes human sacrifices carried out by druids in Gaul, he outlines a similar procedure to that described by Strabo among the Lusitanians.Minus Lusitania? Why, because the language behavior was only Para-Celtic? Consider Lusitania's full culture, which was very similar to what we know existed in Gallaecia. Think again...
Yes, when it comes to "saturation". Center-West of Iberia.
Spain is not celtic, nor any country in the world. Spain is today a ROMANCE country, like France is. However, what we are saying, is that :
1) Iberia has a much celtic ancestry as France or Ireland as demonstrated by language, archeology and genetics, despite not speaking any celtic langauges (today)
2) Despite not speaking anymore celtic languages, the NW of Iberia has culture, traditions, mythology, folk, festivities, customs, which share common elements with other areas like British Isles or Brittany
Can you tell me where I can found more iron age demographic data ? I guess census was very accurate at that time
Just answer my question:
-Was Lusitanian a Celtic language ?
*YES
or
*NOT
I was waiting for the "French denial" card, or the "no more argument" card. French people consider themselves as "Latin" culturally which is a bit more understandable than this "Spanish Celtic folk" 2000 years after any Celtic language was ever being spoken in Spain.
Utermann (1987) and Andrews (1985) see it as Celtic. Most still classify it as Para-Celtic or Proto-Celtic, for reasons previously discussed. Obviously, Lusitanian was an IE language. Again, language is simply behavior generated by cultural processes. Consider the full body of culture...
There are studies which approximate demographics of that time, based on :Can you tell me where I can found more iron age demographic data ? I guess census was very accurate at that time
Here is the study on the approximation of demographics, and it's made by the Real Academy of History, the Casa Velázquez, the Universidad Complutense of Madrid :
http://www.rah.es/catalogo/catalogo/gabinete\bah\Celtas e Iberos.pdf
Then if Lusitanian is Para-Celtic, hw would you define Latin ?
it's partly in French, thank you
I was talking about autosomal, which covers the whole genome, unlike haplogroups.
No, it is not, from a historical point of view.
Well, let me put it this way, Latin is not Para-Celtic.Obviously it's an IE language.
Actually, my friend Taranis would be a better person to ask for specifics.
so what? they have the typical iberian features. spaniards and portugueses usually look like that. they don't belong to europe racially or culturally.