"Priori assumptions about ME|Euro 50|50 … SW Asian in Ashkenazi is 11-13% … W-Asian in Jews 17-22% and not entirely derivative of the Levant."
Why is he insisting "not entirely derivative of the Levant?" Just curious
Razib also said:
"Ultimately the only reason I’d suggest that this paper is lacking is the imperfection of Middle Eastern source populations. That’s probably increasing the European and decreasing the Middle Eastern fraction somewhat on the margins"
Could you also explain why he said this?
The Middle Eastern source populations being used are imperfect, as we've already said may times, because they're modern samples, and we don't know how close the Jews of the first millennium BC and the early centuries of the Common Era were to modern Palestinians/Jordanians, or even Druze, although they may be closer, as they have more northern Near East admixture.
If the Jews of the beginning of the Common Era were like modern Palestinians, that's one thing. If they were more like the Druze, for example, being less SSA, more northern Near East, then they probably picked up less admixture in Europe.
The Levant Bronze Age clustered with Saudis. We don't know, however, the genetic signature of any of the inhabitants of the Levant by the late Iron Age. Did they by that time have more Northern Near Eastern affinities, and then they changed again with the Arab invasions and the slave trade?
Even if they were still Levant Bronze Age like in the first millennium BC, had the Jews, in particular, given that a good number of them had become merchants, and now actively proselytized or at least willingly absorbed a lot of non Jewish women into their communities, already changed to a certain degree by the first centuries of the Common Era, particularly in the communities in Anatolia? We just don't know.
In this regard, there were at that time large communities of Jews throughout Anatolia, and a large one even in Cyprus. When the Apostles and other disciples of Jesus traveled the ancient world to preach the Gospel, they worked from the Jewish communities in the beginning. When the Jews of the Levant, after two disastrous wars with Rome, were by the tens of thousands either killed or sold into slavery, the future of the Jewish people may have rested on these already slightly changed diaspora communities.
In that regard I've often wondered why more analysis isn't done with the Italian Jews, who were in Rome from very early times. I suppose by now there's been intermarriage with other European Jews, and so the waters are muddied.
We just don't know. Khan seems to be leaving the possibility open that the Jews had already become a bit more northern and western by the time of the major diaspora movements, although he thinks the differences might be small given that he says it would only change the percentages at the margins.
Of course, none of this answers why we're not seeing any significant IBD sharing from that period with any southern European populations.