Johane Derite
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Very interesting, had a lot of stuff I never knew about before in this video.
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That's so interesting considering how I myself was very harshly scolded by certain members here only a few weeks ago for basically positing that I don't think it's as of yet implausible (and therefore this should be further investigated) that the specific Illyrian dialect (not the people who spoke it necessarily, since languages can diffuse with minor genetic flow) that would give rise to modern Albanian (or at least influenced its dialectal development a lot) could hypothetically have originated roughly in the region between Dardania, southern Moesia Superior and northern Paeonia, in and around modern Kosovo, where there are evidences of "Albanoid" changes in placenames and Albanian-like etymology for toponyms. People thought I was somehow "stealing the land from the Albanians", saying complete nonsense or whatever. But then this apparently "politically acceptable" video comes and claims precisely that Albanians derive from Dardanians, that the "core" Dardanians came originally from precisely that region near Naisssus/Nish, and that by the time of Bardylis extended their political/cultural dominance over as deep south as Epirus.
I fail to see what's the big difference, perhaps except for the fact the video's hypothesis would've taken place some centuries earlier than I thought. Or maybe, who knows, people really think that a completely uniform dialect was spoken in lands 400-450km apart from each other for many centuries without ever diverging into different versions of the proto-language, so that apparently discussing the origins of a specific modern language in an ancient dialect continuum is totally useless.
I have been telling these albanians for 2 years , that your ancient balkan roots are dardanian ............but you guys kept argueing about your nations propoganda that your where brainwashed in that your illyrianfor example, a screenshot from the vid:
Since we don't know of an Albanian empire, the only way its feasible that this many disparate far off toponyms have albanian phonological
continous development is if there were also albanian speakers at least in minority in between them. So while many toponyms don't have continuity as the albanian control over them was disrupted enough times by ottomans, slavs, etc, there are enough to say that there were albanians in the south before the medival migrations
How they explain the chronology of the few ancient Greek borrowings at which time were borrowed?
From what i have read can not be established the time when were borrowed.
Would like to see linguist explanation.Thanks
I have been telling these albanians for 2 years , that your ancient balkan roots are dardanian ............but you guys kept argueing about your nations propoganda that your where brainwashed in that your illyrian
I also said that ancient historians state epirotes are illyrians and that is the confusing aspect on why you think differntly ...........greeks in the ancient times despised of Epirotes and now want to ensure that they are Greek..........
I also said Illyrians began in the eastern alps in the bronze-age and that is why we have halstatt culture as a celtic-illyrian mix
Well, according to Greek mythology, Illyrius was the youngest son of Cadmus and Harmonia who eventually ruled Illyria and became the eponymous ancestor of the whole Illyrian people.
Illyrius had six sons and three daughters whose names were associated with specific tribes
Sons
Encheleus of the Enchelaeae
Autarieus of the Autariates
Dardanus of the Dardani
Maedus
Taulas of the Taulantii
Perrhaebus of the Perrhaebi
Daughters
Partho of the Partheni
Daortho of Daors
Dassaro of the Dassaretae
Grandsons
Pannonius or Paeon (son of Autarieus) of the Pannonians
GreatGrandsons
Scordiscus (son of Pannonius) of the Scordisci
So, where is the difference between Illyrians and Dardanians according to you ?
The issue, was with claiming a medieval entry of Albanian into the more southern territories, which again, doesn't make sense when we consider the 7th century bc laconian folk vocabulary having albanian word loans.
Lazaridis said Albanian seems to have translocated southwards in medieval times like vlach and slav languages.
This was the crux of my disagreement, which I still stand by. Dardania AND Epirus had Albanian speakers, toponyms like Dimallum (related to Albanian "Mal" (mountain) and stuff like that has convinced me of that. This inclusion of Epirus is a big difference for me, if its not for you i wont hold it against you, but i will disagree and ask for your evidence against it.
My objections to Matzinger were based on his entire argument being built around negative evidence i.e. lack of toponym continuity is his main argument, despite being very weak argument his way around since we know how turbulent balkan history is, whereas the presence of even one toponym having continuity is on the obverse a much stronger argument since its possible to have albanian speakers not in power (i.e. kosovo, serbian was official language, official maps using serbophone toponyms, etc) while living there, whereas having one toponym show continuity necessitates Albanian speakers there.
About the name Bardylis,don't know exactly when Albanian switched PIE ǵ- to dh,but in proto-Albanian would have sounded more like "bardza" not "bardhe" from bʰrh₁ǵ- compare English "bright".So i think that is another thing what should be explained by linguist when comparing ancient names to modern languages.
For example Albanian dhëmb (tooth) is coming from PIE "gombhos" you can see the switch from "g" to "dh.From same root Lithuanian zambas,Greek gomphos etcI'm trying to understand what you wrote. Can you provide some more info that is easy to understand for people who can't read those symbols?
For example, today Bardhe is pronounced B-A-R-DH (E is almost silent)
B - Bob
A is similar to - "pluck" or "up" but more similar to Boston accent - "father"
R - crazy, Ron
DH is like the first sound of "the" or "there"
Could you explain in a similar way how you think BARDH was pronounced in proto-Albanian?
And could you provide some evidence for that opinion? Thank you!
I'm trying to understand what you wrote. Can you provide some more info that is easy to understand for people who can't read those symbols?
For example, today Bardhe is pronounced B-A-R-DH (E is almost silent)
B - Bob
A is similar to - "pluck" or "up" but more similar to Boston accent - "father"
R - crazy, Ron
DH is like the first sound of "the" or "there"
Could you explain in a similar way how you think BARDH was pronounced in proto-Albanian?
And could you provide some evidence for that opinion? Thank you!
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