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Thread: Etruscans=Illyrians=Pelasgi //// tuscans=albanians ?????

  1. #101
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    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post

    Thefariei Welianas sal cluwenias turuce.
    Tiberius Welianas (or "Tiberius of Welian") has given (the) pleasing (of) shrine
    in serbian:
    "Tiberije Velianac salu čuveno/slavno darivaše"
    would mean

    Tiberius from Wellia(n) has given gift to hall/chamber in glorious way (gloriously).


    Thefariei (name - "Tiberius" in Latin, spelled "TBRY´" in Phoenician)
    Welian (name)
    -as (genitive particle)
    -ac is in Serbia
    e.g. John Britanac = John from Britain
    Iranac = man from Iran
    Avganistanac = man from Afghanistan

    man from Velia (no "w" in our alphabet, but w from above is trancsripted as "v")
    would be Velianac

    man from Wallonnia would be "Valonac"


    sal (pleasing)

    cluwenia (shrine)
    -s (genitive particle)
    I think you got word order wrong... Phoeniocans might have adapted word order to their language...

    "sal" would map to serbian (IE word I assume) "sala" - hall, chamber

    cluwenia - would map to serbian/slavic "čuveno/slavno"
    čuveno" = famous
    "slava" = glorious (also proposed origin of tribal name Slavic)
    "slavno" = gloriously

    same word is attested in Illyrian language in form
    cleves- (famous)
    http://www.wordgumbo.com/ie/cmp/illy.htm


    in Serbian ending depends on the gender of what we talk about
    čuven/slavan - when talking about masculine noun
    čuveno/slavno - when talking about neuter noun
    čuvena/slavna - when talking about feminine noun

    but this is not about noun, but describing the verb...
    "čuveno/slavno" would be used...


    turuce
    Tur- (to give)
    -u- (resultative particle)
    -ce (imperfect particle)
    (in combination "he/she/it has given")
    serbian
    "dar" = present
    "darovati" = to give present (infinitive)
    "darivao"/"darovao" - perfect / simple past tense (for 3rd person singular)
    "darivaše" - would be Imperfect past tense (for 3rd person singular) - it is a bit archaic form of past tense though..I would not use it in everyday speech
    "daruje" - present tense

    "darovaće"/"darivaće" - would be future tense (for 3rd person singular)

    so, this "turuce" looks a bit as a future tense to me... or as a misspelled present tense


    note that "tmia" was mapped to "dom"
    and "tur" is mapped to "dar"

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    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    Are you sure? it is correct?

    99.99% of words are equal Latin,

    the site you post if is correct just say Etruscan were latins

    watch the
    http://www.maravot.com/Indo-European_Table1A.1.html

    all Etruscan with Latin have no difference almost,

    I still don't get zanipolo, Etruscans were IE cause that is what that table I link above,
    just compair the Latin with the Etruscan

    simply another fake site for me,



    !!!!!!!!!
    you do realise that the etruscan lands where 20 times greater than the land of the latins, the people numbered 2M , which was 10 times more than the latins.
    latin could have gathered etruscan words is more likely, because the greater the population the more your language becomes the "lingua franca" ( language of commerce)

    Today english is th e"lingua franca" of the world

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    you do realise that the etruscan lands where 20 times greater than the land of the latins, the people numbered 2M , which was 10 times more than the latins.
    latin could have gathered etruscan words is more likely, because the greater the population the more your language becomes the "lingua franca" ( language of commerce)

    Today english is th e"lingua franca" of the world

    yes I do realize, but if the table is correct then what NO IE etruscan???

    then Etruscan is IE

    if I find connection of Etruscan with Latin 99,99% with Albanian 85% with Greek 75% with Serbian 70% with Sanshqrit (or whatever) 80% then about what semitic language of Etruscans,
    ok Latins imported words from Etruscan but Sanshkrit (or whatever) from India???
    Are you sure that the table i link about, from your post's link, is checked?

    cause ok with latin, but with Santa clauss (or whatever) what connections had with the Etruscans, to share language of a Non IE with an IE as Sauce Kebap (or whatever) were,

    whatever

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    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    yes I do realize, but if the table is correct then what NO IE etruscan???

    then Etruscan is IE

    if I find connection of Etruscan with Latin 99,99% with Albanian 85% with Greek 75% with Serbian 70% with Sanshqrit (or whatever) 80% then about what semitic language of Etruscans,
    ok Latins imported words from Etruscan but Sanshkrit (or whatever) from India???
    Are you sure that the table i link about, from your post's link, is checked?

    cause ok with latin, but with Santa clauss (or whatever) what connections had the Etruscans, to share language of a Non IE with an IE as Santa Grettans (or whatever) were,

    whatever
    the question you need to ask is who are the latins, where did they come from, because in ancient greek, the only language in italy was umbro-oscan. the only area the greeks called Italy ( greek word) did not include the latins, etruscans, veneti or the sicels ( sicilians)
    Find who the latins are , then that will find you the etruscan language

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    the question you need to ask is who are the latins, where did they come from, because in ancient greek, the only language in italy was umbro-oscan. the only area the greeks called Italy ( greek word) did not include the latins, etruscans, veneti or the sicels ( sicilians)
    Find who the latins are , then that will find you the etruscan language

    ok Iwil repeat my shelf,
    Etruscans pass from Greece gave marks to Greek,
    pass Albania gave Marks,
    Lived next to Latins gave marks,

    But connection of Etruscan with Sanskrit

    But connection of Etruscan with Avestan & Armenian

    even with Welsh and Hettit !!!!!!!!!
    Then WTF Semitic non IE language !!!!

    that is what i ment Zanipolo, if more than half language roots are in IE then WTF non IE language,
    that is my problem, and not who converted who Latins or Etruscans.

    offcourse the case of Creole language with IE but then why to compare with rest IE and not with Rest semitic,

    ok maybe I am retard, But how can i quess that is correct when all the Etruscan in table is IE,
    and in these thread most agree that is NO IE
    I am interesting (personaly and believe most here in the vocabulary of early non IE Etruscans, if I have the vocabulary that today exist in Etruria then what .....

    ty


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    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    ok Iwil repeat my shelf,
    Etruscans pass from Greece gave marks to Greek,
    pass Albania gave Marks,
    Lived next to Latins gave marks,

    But connection of Etruscan with Sanskrit

    But connection of Etruscan with Avestan & Armenian

    even with Welsh and Hettit !!!!!!!!!
    Then WTF Semitic non IE language !!!!

    that is what i ment Zanipolo, if more than half language roots are in IE then WTF non IE language,
    that is my problem, and not who converted who Latins or Etruscans.

    offcourse the case of Creole language with IE but then why to compare with rest IE and not with Rest semitic,

    ok maybe I am retard, But how can i quess that is correct when all the Etruscan in table is IE,
    and in these thread most agree that is NO IE
    I am interesting (personaly and believe most here in the vocabulary of early non IE Etruscans, if I have the vocabulary that today exist in Etruria then what .....

    ty


    Let us look at this logically.

    The latins say they come from Aeneas and the trojans.
    Actually Aeneas was a Dardanian

    The trojans spoke an anatolian language - Luwian
    The thracians and paphlogians spoke Luwian

    Did the Maeonians ( Lydians ) , speak Luwian. If they did and they became the Etruscans and they migrated in the great migration of 1100BC to Italy, then its logical to say that both etruscan and trojan ( latins) spoke a similar anatolian language.

    If its similar at that time it would be similar 500 years later.

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    Kaplan Resuli, a quotable linguist!

    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    lets see the Greek in ancient how will be

    MEGO DONASTO RETIAI

    EGO EDOKA TΙ REITIA
    ΕΓΩ ΕΔΩΚΑ τηι Ρεiτιa ορ ΕΓΩ ΕΔΩΚΑ REITΙΗι (ι is underline Dotiki)
    virb Dino Διδ-ω ->Δινω = give in past e-dosa Εδωσα

    the funny is that Reitia-ι takes a ι, υπογεγραμμενη Underlined ι, which is only in giving in Greek,
    and today in modern is suspended

    so Veneti follow part of Greek Grammar?

    where has its roots?

    I mean in English is give
    in German is geben
    in Italian is Dare
    in Albanian is jap
    in Serbian is дати Dati
    in Bulgarian is дава Daba
    in Catalunia is Donar

    seems like clear IE to me the Greco-Roman but is it a proof or an evidence


    Now about 100 men

    how many where sea people?
    how many R1a or R1b in Greece that is not later romano-celtic - latin speaking,
    much of R1b is western brought by Romans, and parts of R1a could be medieval slavic or Turkish.
    how many R1a in south Balkans?
    yet Greeks speak IE and south slavic are connected with Baltic (although I don't agree)
    how many Greeks travel with ships to establsh a colony????? (millions?)
    it is estimated that many Greek colonies were established by less than 2000 men
    Sinope was a small city-colony, but create Trebizond Empire
    Besides Etruscans means same with troy Troia, Tyris-intha (o+y = u in Greek)
    En-troy-cani ->Etroycanoi ->etrucans
    means Trojer people ->tower building people, city walls people, castle people

    I read a book about Delphi oracles, 14 ships estimation of about 50 population was to build Phasis in Georgia
    yes only 700 people, later much more came,

    how many ships had Colombus the 6th fleet? or the spanish armada?







    Now about Albanians I have wrote many posts

    1rst Illyria and Illyricum

    for ancient Greeks Illyria is the area that later known as Illyria proprie Dicti

    Pliny (23–79 AD) writes that the people that formed the nucleus of the Illyrian kingdom were 'Illyrians proper' or Illyrii Proprie Dicti.[17] They were the Taulantii, the Pleraei, the Endirudini, Sasaei, Grabaei and the Labeatae. These later joined to form the Docleatae.

    The roman province of Illyricum



    As you see it is not the same


    about language connections of ancient Illyria

    to understand that we must understand the Pelasgians,
    Pelasgians were Around Aegean and cyprus, probably Anatolian or Levant,

    Cadmus was the first to settle in Continent that was dwell that times by thracians (Greek Theba),

    Cadmus son Illyros invade Illyria who was habited by Celts,

    Pelasgian culture includes Cyclades, Minoan, Troy, pre Greek, Thyrrenian, Ionic-Athenean, Phillistines, Cyprus cultures,

    Pelasgian system was city states, and mainly were Naval people,

    there are 3 names of pre-Greeks the Lellekes the Pelasgians and the Driopes
    the last the Driopes are considered IE

    Pelasgian Gods in Greek Thogony

    Pontus (sea and bottom) later remained as PUdna Πυδνα in Makedonian and Πυθμεν in Greek
    while the IE word is Βυθος Buthos - Bottom
    Iapetos the name of Japeth,
    Erebos the dark (semitic Erebu, Illyrian Erevet)
    Kawir Καβηροι
    Hekate Εκατη from Egyptian Ka = soul
    Hera from Pelasgian godess Eorda or Arda
    Athena from Egyptian Neith
    Oceanus Ωκεανος
    Carnios Kreios Καρνιος Κριος
    Gyges Γυγης Lydian-Anatolian name
    Thaleia Θαλεια

    etc

    Pelasgian toponyms

    Parnassus -> from pharm and -issa
    Pharm in the Pelasgian ment house Parn
    Parnassus means fortified houses

    Thera island (warm island) simmilar Thyrrenian or comes from trojer troyan->tower city



    other Pelasgian words

    neo ναιω = Ι flow, ναιας a ship (remember Noah)
    the IE word in Greek is pleo Πλεω flow->plow-> pleo

    La the stone
    Lavrys -Λαβρυς the hammer to stimulate stones
    Labirynth Λαβιρυνθος the stone mine
    Etruscan LA-pis

    Ζεω and Ζω
    Ζεω means I am warm
    Zω means I am warm as an alive should be

    κωνος the pyramid but also the city
    Ko+no+sso = Knossos (minoan city)
    Mu +ko+no = Mycenae (1 mu = Homo, the city of Humans?? 2 Mu = ομου together the city where all lived together?) or there was a tribe named My (My-cenae , My-ssian, My-Nians or Mi-noans, Moe-ssians, Ma-kedonians,)

    Greek Γοης -Γοησσα (fem) desirable, very pretty, unresistable
    Turkish -anat Guzzell Beautifull, fine
    Italian Gusto

    there are a lot of works that is connecting ancient Illyrian (part of Albanian) with Pelasgian and Homeric (non IE words)

    for the Celtic Branch
    Alb Mire jam = I am Fine
    Eng merry I am (merry christmas etc)

    alb mire dita
    Eng good day

    etc

    But the case of Modern Albanian, is more complex,

    Dienekes and modern linguistic proved that a major devastasion had happened the last 600 years,

    modern Albanians are more Transylvanians
    the tribe of Albocense
    Maximus of Moessia was the first who found them.

    for the record of Gennetics

    The source for the I2a seems to be either the Albanization of people from the West Balkans and/or selection, although it would be difficult to see a massive increase in frequency in only five centuries. The I2a-deficiency of the Arbereshe also gives support to the theory that the Albanians are relatively recent arrivals from the northeast;

    http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2010/07...eshe-from.html


    the above as also the linguistic analysis of Gustav-Mayer, Kaplan Rassuli, as also the Historic events
    proves that Albanians are a new nation

    Historically Illyria is not found elsewhere after Roman occupation,
    later at 1040 we found Arbanites from city of Arbanon (not same with albonopolis)
    and state of arber of Progon moving south from Dalmatia, and state of Alba of Anju
    Anju were Cumans like Hunyadi and had origin city of Alba Lullia in Romania.
    the tribe of albocense from Dacia probably moved the last 600-700 years to Illyria,

    The conection of modern Albanians with other is just in written words,
    modern Albanian is a SATEM language
    while ancient Illyrian were Centum, even the Messapic that was adopted later in Illyria,
    words like Femia are later with messapic, while words like the word for tribe, for relatives is like Greek-Pelasgic Φυλη fili
    the word and simmilarity in written forms of speech is from ancient Illyrian that remained in Modern Albanian language, or from latinization of Moessia at Roman occupation time

    Albocense were considered Thracians,
    Even today Daci/Gaete and south slavic are not yet clear who is the Thracian language,

    Georgiev-Duridanov and Rusu still argue about a latin or a slavic form of ancient Thracian,
    a language that have left many words also in Greek language, (if latin-Dacian,) or is the IE branch of Greek Language (if slavic origin)

    julia be carefull of Albanian Nationalists, they even claim Goliath was Albanian,

    Besides Gorani-Torbesi belong to south slavic population,


    I don't know what Has Kapllan Resuli done to be quoted as an expert linguist. Quoting him would just indicate you are not involved in a serious discussion.

    Thanks, Bill

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    Lets see the Greek in ancient how will be

    MEGO DONASTO RETIAI

    EGO EDOKA TΙ REITIA
    ΕΓΩ ΕΔΩΚΑ τηι Ρεiτιa ορ ΕΓΩ ΕΔΩΚΑ REITΙΗι (ι is underline Dotiki)
    virb Dino Διδ-ω ->Δινω = give in past e-dosa Εδωσα

    the funny is that Reitia-ι takes a ι, υπογεγραμμενη Underlined ι, which is only in giving in Greek,
    and today in modern is suspended

    so Veneti follow part of Greek Grammar?

    where has its roots?

    I mean in English is give
    in German is geben
    in Italian is Dare
    in Albanian is jap
    in Serbian is дати Dati
    in Bulgarian is дава Daba
    in Catalunia is Donar
    In Venet it is Donar.......same as catulunia

    to forgive is Perdonar

    Whats Greek about it?

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    I think that Albanians are the same nation with Romanians, Beacus i have met many europeans and all of them look different but when i met some Romanians 4-5 months ago they look just like our nation, One day i heard them speaking something and they said a albanian word, Buzët, In Albanian means Lips and they said this word in Romanian , Im so suprised!

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    Quote Originally Posted by Valmir View Post
    I think that Albanians are the same nation with Romanians, Beacus i have met many europeans and all of them look different but when i met some Romanians 4-5 months ago they look just like our nation, One day i heard them speaking something and they said a albanian word, Buzët, In Albanian means Lips and they said this word in Romanian , Im so suprised!
    Many romanians do look albanians, but it depends on the place of origins.. i don't know.. i think of albanians as more darker than romanians.. but southern romanians (non transylvanians one and non banat one as well as non near ukraine too) are quite dark.
    Some albanians tend to have a more squared-robust and well defined face, many albanians ahave convex noses, as well as many romanians..
    Both many albanians and many romanians could pass as italians too

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    Yes julia90, it is true that Albanians (especially those Tosk) are very similar to Italians. I have not ever been to Italy but I have met many Italians here in Tirana. To tell the truth, they differ almost not at all by the Albanians, except when speaking. I do not speak Italian and, although I have not studied this language,I am able to understand in a considerable extent, I do not know why. Italians do not understand Albanian. In my opinion, the Albanian language is more akin to the Etruscan. Albanian also stays closer to the Latin than to the Italian language. Somewhere I've read that a large part of the Tosk Albanians are Etruscans which arrived in Albania in the year 167 BC after a fierce Latin-Etruscan war. I do not know if this is true.
    As you can see I’m an Etruscan born one (I’m a Tosk), but Taranis pretends to know Etruscan better than me Of course he is the best linguist (but the dumb Etruscan) of this forum
    Now, let me go and “fight” with Taranis.

    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
    … there is no evidence whatsoever that Albanian is related with "Pelasgian" (which is very hard to grasp, anyways) or with Tyrrhenian (which would be the Greek word for the Etruscans). I showed very clearly in that other thread that Etruscan was a non-Indo-European language, whereas Albanian verymuch is.
    In modern Albanian there are a considerable number of ancient Greek words, especially words that linguists have considered to be Pelasgian.
    On the subject of Etruscan, if it is or not an IE language, linguists are divided into two groups, on pros and cons. In fact scholars are now studying new ways of deciphering Etruscan , based mainly in modern Albanian (but also in Latin, Greek and Turkish). The result is expected to appear within a period of 2-3 years.

    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
    In my opinion, Albanian is most closest related to the Old Balkan languages (principally Dacian), but it has also borrowings from Greek and Latin.
    Albanian continues to be the most less known language by the linguists. Initially it was regarded as a Roman language. Later, linguists have classified it as a special branch of IE languages which has preserved some very interesting characteristics which differs from other European languages. Even some linguists think that Albanian has imposed some of its own characteristics to some other Balkan languages (eg suffixed definite article).
    For more see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Albanian_language

    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    I was always taught that the modern albanians are of dacia stock, basically vlachs.
    As for skandenberg, if I recall correctly, he was of a neapolitan family called castrioti , who had ties militarily and by commerce with Naples.
    Sorry, all what you've written is ridiculous. You are misinformed!
    However, to understand me, I will not use this honorable forum as an efforts arena to “protect” the Albanians and their language.
    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
    Albanian has a significant number of cognates with Romanian, specifically words found exclusively in both Albanian and Romanian.
    It’s quite true. But it comes against your idea (implied, ‘cause your post comes just after the above zanipolo’s post).
    Albanian has a significant number of cognates with Ancient Greek and Latin too.
    Words, which does not exist in modern Greek or in modern Latin languages.
    Well, try to understand clearly the cause of this phenomenon (considering that Albanian is a special branch in the family of the IE languages).

    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
    Let me say this: the Etruscan language is extremely problematic (even people of Antiquity considered the presence of them problematic). There is significant evidence that the Etruscans originated in Anatolia. This is both genetic (there is evidence that Etruscan cattle must have been imported from Anatolia circa 1000-1200 BC, and there was also an article on this posted here in the forum, but I do not have the link right now), and also linguistic, but the Etruscan language in itself is problematic nonetheless.
    (bolded by me)
    I’ve read this post yesterday.
    These are alarming ideas that clearly reflect the true reason why the Etruscan language remains a mystery. The question is that both etruscans and their language are “problematic” simply 'cause they ... came from Anatolia!
    The text is quite clear!
    Anyone can understand without difficulty that the mystery does not lay in the Etruscan but in it's “problematic" people … originated in Anatolia.
    Mysterious is precisely the attitude towards etruscans and therefore to their language too.
    So etruscans never deserve to be regarded as the founders of the Western civilization, simply ‘cause they are ... originated in Anatolia!
    Sorry Taranis, but this is a pure racism. However, you may be consoled in the fact that you're not alone. This mysterious attitude twards etruscans and their language is really the "official" one, although the mystery has been "academically" transferred to the Etruscan language.
    But what if the latins came from Asia Minor too?
    May God forbid this hypothesis proved!

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    Quote Originally Posted by Hal Fao View Post
    Yes julia90, it is true that Albanians (especially those Tosk) are very similar to Italians. I have not ever been to Italy but I have met many Italians here in Tirana. To tell the truth, they differ almost not at all by the Albanians, except when speaking. I do not speak Italian and, although I have not studied this language,I am able to understand in a considerable extent, I do not know why. Italians do not understand Albanian. In my opinion, the Albanian language is more akin to the Etruscan. Albanian also stays closer to the Latin than to the Italian language. Somewhere I've read that a large part of the Tosk Albanians are Etruscans which arrived in Albania in the year 167 BC after a fierce Latin-Etruscan war. I do not know if this is true.
    As you can see I’m an Etruscan born one (I’m a Tosk), but Taranis pretends to know Etruscan better than me Of course he is the best linguist (but the dumb Etruscan) of this forum
    Now, let me go and “fight” with Taranis.
    Where do you take that idea from that the Albanian and Etruscan languages are related? There is absolutely no evidence towards that direction. Albanian and Etruscan can in many ways, especially it's sound inventory, be no more different from each other.

    In modern Albanian there are a considerable number of ancient Greek words, especially words that linguists have considered to be Pelasgian.
    On the subject of Etruscan, if it is or not an IE language, linguists are divided into two groups, on pros and cons. In fact scholars are now studying new ways of deciphering Etruscan , based mainly in modern Albanian (but also in Latin, Greek and Turkish). The result is expected to appear within a period of 2-3 years.
    Sorry, that concept is verymuch doomed. Just take a look at that "magical" translation of the Pyrgi tablet (which is actually extremely demonstrative of the non-Indo-European nature of the Etruscan language, because it's a bilingual text - the other language used is Phoenician, meaning we know the rough content of the Etruscan text). Also, why would anybody use Turkish?! The Turks didn't live anywhere near Italy in the 1st millennium BC - they were not even anywhere even near Anatolia until the end of the 1st millennium AD. You might as well use Quechua or Cherokee for translating Etruscan.

    Albanian continues to be the most less known language by the linguists. Initially it was regarded as a Roman language. Later, linguists have classified it as a special branch of IE languages which has preserved some very interesting characteristics which differs from other European languages. Even some linguists think that Albanian has imposed some of its own characteristics to some other Balkan languages (eg suffixed definite article).
    For more see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Albanian_language
    The classification of Albanian as it's own branch of IE makes sense, especially because of the sound laws.

    It’s quite true. But it comes against your idea (implied, ‘cause your post comes just after the above zanipolo’s post).
    Albanian has a significant number of cognates with Ancient Greek and Latin too.
    Words, which does not exist in modern Greek or in modern Latin languages.
    Well, try to understand clearly the cause of this phenomenon (considering that Albanian is a special branch in the family of the IE languages).
    It's not a contradiction at all. Obviously Romanian is also a Romance language (ie, derived from Latin), but Romanian has vocabulary which isn't found in Latin, but shared with Albanian. Since the Dacians and linguistically related groups (Moesians, Getae) lived in these areas, it stands to reason that this is the source of these words.

    Regarding the Greek words, it's also clear that Proto-Albanian (if you want to call it that) must have had contact with early Greek.

    (bolded by me)
    I’ve read this post yesterday.
    These are alarming ideas that clearly reflect the true reason why the Etruscan language remains a mystery. The question is that both etruscans and their language are “problematic” simply 'cause they ... came from Anatolia!
    Actually no. If you take a look at what ancient authors thought on the Etruscans, it's quite clear that they thought the same: a language verymuch unlike the languages surrounding it (Italic, Celtic, Ligurian). It's only natural to speculate it might have come from somewhere else? I mean, there is also the possibility of the flip side, namely that Etruscan is a pre-Indo-European language which merely survived the arrival of the Indo-European languages, but evidence does not point into that direction.

    The text is quite clear!
    Anyone can understand without difficulty that the mystery does not lay in the Etruscan but in it's “problematic" people … originated in Anatolia.
    Mysterious is precisely the attitude towards etruscans and therefore to their language too.
    These ideas are not "alarming" at all, there is actually a number of evidence that pinpoints in that direction. For one, there is genetic evidence, coming, surprisingly from Etruscan cattle.

    There is also linguistic evidence in the Etruscan language itself, specifically it's phonemic inventory. Specifically the usage of an AEIU base vowel system (as opposed to an AEIOU base vowel system), which was also used by Akkadian and Hittite. Now, the languages were obviously unrelated (Akkadian is Semitic, Hittite is Indo-European, specifically of the Anatolian branch), but one explanation is that they were apparently subject to the same areal affect. You also have to consider that Etruscan has a number of Semitic borrowings, for instance the word "Taliθa" (girl). Another very un-Indo-European feature is the fact that Etruscan does not distinguish between voiced and unvoiced plosives (ie, no distinction between B/P, D/T, G/K, respectively), though it does distinct between aspirated and unaspirated plosives (P/Ph, T/Th, K/Kh).

    Another link with Anatolia is the existence of the 8-shaped letter for "F" in Etruscan, which it shares with the Lydian alphabet.

    So etruscans never deserve to be regarded as the founders of the Western civilization, simply ‘cause they are ... originated in Anatolia!
    I did not say that. On the contrary, it's very clear that the Romans borrowed heavily from the Etruscans, in particular culturally. By the way, I think I understand where you want to be going there: you think that Albanians should be regarded as the founders of Western Civilization. Sorry, I have to disappoint you on that ego trip.

    Sorry Taranis, but this is a pure racism. However, you may be consoled in the fact that you're not alone. This mysterious attitude twards etruscans and their language is really the "official" one, although the mystery has been "academically" transferred to the Etruscan language.
    But what if the latins came from Asia Minor too?
    May God forbid this hypothesis proved!
    Racism?! That is an insult, and you will apologize for that.

    Regarding the Latins, Latin is obviously an Indo-European language, specifically of the Italic branch (other fairly-well known languages, spoken in ancient Italy before the rise of Rome, were Oscan and Umbrian), and many scholars have suggested a close relationship between the Celtic and the Italic languages - or at the least, a set of common Italo-Celtic innovations - which are absent in other branches of Indo-European.
    Last edited by Taranis; 04-06-11 at 16:01.

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    Here is something else to show up the differences between Albanian and Etruscan, specifically the sounds which are encoded or not encoded in the alphabets. I have bolded differences (since you seem to be Albanian, you should know what sounds these encode for in Albanian):

    Etruscan

    Vowels - AEIU

    Consonants:
    Nasals - M, N
    Plosives - P, Ph, T, Th, K, Kh
    Affricate - Ts
    Fricatives - F, S, Sh, H
    Approximants - L, J, W
    Rhotics - R

    Albanian

    Vowels - AEËIOYU

    Consonants:
    Nasals - M, N, Nj, Ng
    Plosives - P, B, T, D, Q, Gj, K, G
    Affricate - C, X, Ç, Xh
    Fricatives - F, V(?), Th, Dh, S, Z, Sh, Zh, H
    Approximants - L, Ll, J
    Rhotics - R, RR

    Note that I was merely looking at the phonology here encoded in the writing systems. I'm totally disregarding grammar here, which undoubtably shows that Etruscan was an agglutinative, non-Indo-European language. But, the key point above is, it's impossible to end up with Albanian from the Etruscan language, simply out of the phonological differences. And if there was any relationship, you have absolutely no way to explain how these changes are conditioned (consider that the underlying rule in linguistics is that sound laws have no exceptions - and if they seem to, these too are subject to sound laws).

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    http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3...ubmed_RVDocSum

    Cruciani Cavalli Sforza

    Cruciani concluded that the distribution of the E3b1-alpha cluster in Europe indicates a Neolithic or post-Neolithic expansion out of the Balkans into Europe that spread as far west as the Iberian peninsula, and southeast to Turkey. STR diversity analysis gives an estimate of about 8 thousand years ago for that expansion
    Nje studim tjeter: Semino: It's interesting to note that another recent study concluded that a J sub-group, J2e1 (J-M102), also expanded into Europe from the Balkans during the Neolithic period. Most likely due to genetic drift, Kosovar Albanians harbor a J2e frequency peak whereas variance maximum declines from the southeastern edge of the studied region

    According to Semino: The footprint of J2e1 (M102) on the European map indicates some sort of connection between the southern Balkans and north-central Italy. One possible explanation is that J2e1 may have dispersed into Europe from the Balkans.Some of the highest frequencies that Semino et al saw for J2e1 were Albania (14.3% of total population), north-central Italy (9.6%), Greece (6.5%) Croatia etc Semino et al estimated the date of the M102 mutation at about 8000 years ago."

    First of all Albanian and kosovars are the same peoples. The max frequencies of J2e are among Albanians, the some for E3b1. This 2 Haplogroupe are belived to exist there before the Roman arivals.(J2e% + E3b1a% = 16 + 45 = 61%) All this 2 haplogroup have max freq in albanians and this is a sign of distinction from slavs. In 2000 BC there have been different migration in to balkan no one can say there have ben only one haplogroup.


    http://carnby.altervista.org/troe/06-02.htm

    Illyrians as Dorians
    Carleton S. Coon found a connection between the Illyrians and the Dorians based on his anthropological analyses of the Albanian and Montenegrin population as well as the Sfakian population in Crete. Coon discovered that Montenegro and Albania is highly concentrated Illyrian racial zone and that the Sfakians are directly descended from Doric tribes that invaded Crete from the direction of Macedonia and Illyria. Moreover, he discovered that Albanians, Montenegrins and Sfakians shared many similarities in stature, appearance, language, national costume, belligerent tendencies, tribal orders, and vendettas.

    too many theories , be it illyrian with doric , illyrian with veneti or others

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3...ubmed_RVDocSum

    Cruciani Cavalli Sforza

    Cruciani concluded that the distribution of the E3b1-alpha cluster in Europe indicates a Neolithic or post-Neolithic expansion out of the Balkans into Europe that spread as far west as the Iberian peninsula, and southeast to Turkey. STR diversity analysis gives an estimate of about 8 thousand years ago for that expansion
    Nje studim tjeter: Semino: It's interesting to note that another recent study concluded that a J sub-group, J2e1 (J-M102), also expanded into Europe from the Balkans during the Neolithic period. Most likely due to genetic drift, Kosovar Albanians harbor a J2e frequency peak whereas variance maximum declines from the southeastern edge of the studied region

    According to Semino: The footprint of J2e1 (M102) on the European map indicates some sort of connection between the southern Balkans and north-central Italy. One possible explanation is that J2e1 may have dispersed into Europe from the Balkans.Some of the highest frequencies that Semino et al saw for J2e1 were Albania (14.3% of total population), north-central Italy (9.6%), Greece (6.5%) Croatia etc Semino et al estimated the date of the M102 mutation at about 8000 years ago."

    First of all Albanian and kosovars are the same peoples. The max frequencies of J2e are among Albanians, the some for E3b1. This 2 Haplogroupe are belived to exist there before the Roman arivals.(J2e% + E3b1a% = 16 + 45 = 61%) All this 2 haplogroup have max freq in albanians and this is a sign of distinction from slavs. In 2000 BC there have been different migration in to balkan no one can say there have ben only one haplogroup.


    http://carnby.altervista.org/troe/06-02.htm

    Illyrians as Dorians
    Carleton S. Coon found a connection between the Illyrians and the Dorians based on his anthropological analyses of the Albanian and Montenegrin population as well as the Sfakian population in Crete. Coon discovered that Montenegro and Albania is highly concentrated Illyrian racial zone and that the Sfakians are directly descended from Doric tribes that invaded Crete from the direction of Macedonia and Illyria. Moreover, he discovered that Albanians, Montenegrins and Sfakians shared many similarities in stature, appearance, language, national costume, belligerent tendencies, tribal orders, and vendettas.

    too many theories , be it illyrian with doric , illyrian with veneti or others

    on the other hand we know that dorians came after sea people at least 300 years after Myceneans,
    but we notice the mycenean culture to go North we find Myceneans tombs that go North to Epirus Albania and rich even dalmatia and Istria
    some of them are older than 900 BC estimation time of Dorians whose capital was Trikke in Thessaly, and not in Illyria

    Dorieis Trichakes from Tricha or Trikke

    all the common that you mention can be Mycaneans that moved North

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    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    on the other hand we know that dorians came after sea people at least 300 years after Myceneans,
    but we notice the mycenean culture to go North we find Myceneans tombs that go North to Epirus Albania and rich even dalmatia and Istria
    some of them are older than 900 BC estimation time of Dorians whose capital was Trikke in Thessaly, and not in Illyria

    Dorieis Trichakes from Tricha or Trikke

    all the common that you mention can be Mycaneans that moved North

    myceaneans as far as istria can be true especially with the castellieri culture.

    when did the mycaneans leave/vanish from argos area?

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    myceaneans as far as istria can be true especially with the castellieri culture.

    when did the mycaneans leave/vanish from argos area?
    at the time of troy had even reached north Epirus

    that is another as the celtic you call Illyrians and I can prove it,

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    Quote Originally Posted by iapetoc View Post
    at the time of troy had even reached north Epirus

    that is another as the celtic you call Illyrians and I can prove it,
    I was reading Igenea on what they call genetic structure of nations ( do not know exactly what they mean ), they stipulated that genetics are grouped in racial groupings...............can anyone explain. example below of there site

    Croatia:
    illyrians = 34%
    Slaves = 20%
    Celts = 18%
    Teutons = 12% .............i think this means modern germans
    Phoenicians = 8%
    Hellenes = 8%

    Bosnia
    illyrians = 40%
    Slaves = 15%
    Celts = 15%
    Teutons = 20% .............i think this means modern germans
    Huns = 6%
    Thracians = 4%


    Albania & Epirus
    illyrians = 30%
    Slaves = 20%
    Thracians = 18%
    Vikings = 2% .............strange that norsemen are there ( maybe norman invasion )
    Phoenicians = 16%
    Hellenes = 14%

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    What is the difference between P-illyrian and Q-illyrian languages. All I can find is that the q-illyrian was in the north while P-illyrian was from montenegro and heading south.

    has P-illyrian got greek influence? or doric or ??

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    What is the difference between P-illyrian and Q-illyrian languages. All I can find is that the q-illyrian was in the north while P-illyrian was from montenegro and heading south.

    has P-illyrian got greek influence? or doric or ??
    You are the first person to ever claim such a distinction. What evidence do you have that such a distinction can be even made from the scarce corpus of Illyrian?

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    Quote Originally Posted by zanipolo View Post
    What is the difference between P-illyrian and Q-illyrian languages. All I can find is that the q-illyrian was in the north while P-illyrian was from montenegro and heading south.

    has P-illyrian got greek influence? or doric or ??
    the difference you make is correct, ancients Greeks call Illyrians only those south of Montenegro,
    also in pliny or livy we find that,

    even genetical are different populations,

    for many damatians etc were not Illyrians but Illyricum,
    by following Greek they were Keltoi and relative to Keltoi
    non Thracian but connected to Thracian some tribes,

    the difference of Q-illyrian and P-illyrian is forst time heard,

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    Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
    You are the first person to ever claim such a distinction. What evidence do you have that such a distinction can be even made from the scarce corpus of Illyrian?
    I cannot link for some reason, But I found this below, then I searched the net and found a book called - The celtic Encyclopedia , Volume 1 by Harry Mountain. This ALSO spoke of the P and Q illyrian

    Like Pokorny and Hubschmid, I had blithely assumed that the attested Venetic language
    of the Po Valley belonged with Illyrian in a "Veneto-Illyrian"
    branch of Indo-European. Careful examination of the Venetic corpus
    has now shown me that Venetic cannot be shoehorned into the same IE
    branch as Illyrian. However, the affinities between Lusitanian and
    Messapic are too striking to ignore, and the connections between
    Messapic itself and the poorly known languages of Illyria proper are
    clear. Therefore I must postulate an Illyro-Lusitanian branch of IE
    which excludes Venetic, as explained below.

    The principal Illyro-Lusitanian diagnostics are gemination of
    postvocalic consonants followed by semivowels, accent generally
    recessive but falling on the last syllable of the first part of a
    compound noun, and monophthongization of long diphthongs. Within
    this branch of Indo-European, Lusitanian retains inherited /o/ and
    final /m/, while the Illyrian group changes them to /a/ and /n/.
    The latter group includes Q-languages and P-languages based on the
    treatment of labiovelars. Messapic and Japygian are Q-Illyrian
    languages, while Macedonian in my view is a P-Illyrian language.
    All these languages have merged the inherited voiced aspirates with
    the simple voiced stops, and each shows some idiosyncratic secondary
    developments with its consonants.

    M. Durante, in "Il nome di Pesaro e l'accento iniziale in Illirico"
    (AION-L 1:35-45, 1959), reconstructs a South Illyrian *luk{w}o-
    'wolf' on the basis of the Paeonian (i.e. North Macedonian)
    personal names <Lukkeios> and <Luppeios>, which he contrasts with
    Proto-Albanian *ulk{w}o- (Alb. <ujk> 'wolf'). He regards the
    etymology of the Paeonian names as certain, on the grounds that
    <Lupus> and <Lupa> are common personal names in Latin inscriptions
    of the Balkan peninsula, and a labiovelar can go either way. I
    note, however, that a simple labiovelar would normally have
    produced -k- or -p-, if not retained as -k{w}-. The (South)
    Illyrian for 'wolf' must have been *lukk{w}o-, with the gemination
    occurring either in Illyrian or in its parent Indo-European
    language, since the PIE form itself is reconstructed as *wl.kwo-. A
    similar gemination occurred independently in some Italian and
    insular dialects of Late Latin. Probus prescribes "aqua non acqua",
    and the futility of his prescriptivism is shown by Modern Italian
    <acqua>, <acquidotto>, etc. We also have Logudorese <abba>, with
    Nuorese <abbatiza> and Log. <abbaduza> from Lat. <aquatilia>, Log.
    <abbagotta> 'glue' i.e. 'aqua cocta', Corsican <strakkwu> 'stranded
    goods' i.e. '(bona) extra aquam', Log. <abbardzu>, Sicilian
    <akkwaloru>, and Apulian <akkwara> from Lat. <aqua:rium>, <-a>, and
    Sic. <akkwattsu> from Lat. <aqua:tio:> (REW 570-588).

    Attic Greek <híppos> 'horse' can be regarded as an inherited reflex
    of PIE *H1ek^wo- only through strained ad-hoc assumptions. It forms
    both first and second elements of compound personal names. In
    Macedonian, <-ippos> occurs as a second element; <Bílippos> is
    Hellenized as <Phílippos>. In Epidaurian and Tarentine Greek proper
    names, <-ikkos> is found. As with the Paeonian names, it is evident
    that we are dealing with Q-Illyrian and P-Illyrian material. Since
    Illyrian is a centum group (pace Hamp et al.), it makes no
    distinction between inherited */k/ and */k^/, and reflects */k^w/
    the same as */kw/, producing a geminate in intervocalic position. P-
    Illyrian has /pp/, and Q-Illyrian including the Japygian extension
    into Italy (with Messapic) has /kk/, Tarentine having borrowed <-
    ikkos> from Messapic. Mycenaean Greek has no compound personal
    names formed from 'horse', indicating this word's novelty, and the
    attested forms, nom. sg. <i-qo> and gen. sg. <i-qo-jo>, show that a
    labiovelar was still in use (/(h)ikk{w}os/, /(h)ikk{w}oyo/, cf. Epic
    Grk. gen. <híppoio>) in the Illyrian dialect from which Mycenaean
    borrowed. I see no reason to suppose that Attic-Epic <híppos>
    continues the Mycenaean form, with */kk{w}/ developing into /pp/ in
    Proto-Attic. More likely the Attic form is borrowed directly from
    Macedonian or other P-Illyrian. The inherited Greek root likely
    appears in <Epeiós> (builder of the Trojan Horse, Il. 23:665, Od.
    8:493, etc.) from an extinct *epos 'horse'.

    Labiovelars in word-initial position or preceded by other consonants
    evidently did not undergo gemination. J. Whatmough (_Prae-Italic
    Dialects_ v. 2, p. 606, 1933) regards the Messapic onomastic forms
    <Penkeos> and <Penkaheh[e]> as derived from *penkwe 'five' (the
    forms are genn. sgg. of an /e:w/-stem and an /ayo/-stem). Latin
    <gurdus> can be explained as a loan from Lusitanian, reflecting
    *gwr.H-do- (see Cyb. #59524).

    J.U. Hubschmied (Vox Rom. 1:102-3) refers Lower Engadine
    <gioc> 'juniper' to an Illyrian *yukk{w}o-. A protoform *yuppo- is
    required by Old Upper Engadine <giop> 'id.' (see J. Hubschmid,
    _Praeromanica_, p.32, 1949). Both these and some awkwardly related
    words for 'juniper' in other languages can be explained if we
    postulate a Western IE *yukw- which was extended in Celtic as *yuk{w}
    i-, in Illyro-Lusitanian as *yukk{w}o- yielding Q-Ill. *yukko- and P-
    Ill. *yuppo-, both represented in the Illyrian substrate of the East
    Alps. Ligurian <jupikellos> (Diosc.) must have its first element
    borrowed from Gaulish *yupi-, and the modern Alpine toponym
    <Giubiasco> likewise has a Ligurian suffix on a Gaulish base, since
    Ligurian did not labialize inherited */kw/. Latin <ju:niperus>, <-
    i:> (f.) has evidently been altered to conform to other tree-names
    from *ju:nipera 'juniper-berry-producing', from *ju:num 'juniper-
    berry', from Old Lat. *juxnom < *yukw-snom.

    Despite its retention of inherited /o/ and final /m/, Lusitanian
    shows striking affinities to Messapic. In the inscription of Cabeço
    das Fráguas, <Iccona> appears to be the name of the goddess
    equivalent to the Gaulish Epona, in the dative case. Thus
    Lusitanian has *ikko- from PIE *H1ek^wo- 'horse', just as Messapic
    and other Q-Illyrian have *(h)ikko-. If we assume that PIE *H1e-
    was reflected in Illyro-Lusitanian as *hi-, we can explain not
    only 'horse' but several other words in Messapic and Lusitanian.
    Mess. <hipades> is equivalent in sense to Grk. <epéthe:ke> 'placed'
    (something) 'upon' (someone), in practice 'dedicated'
    (something) 'to' (a deity). Mess. <hipa-> corresponds to Grk. <epi-
    > if both reflect *H1ep- with different grades and extensions, <hipa-
    > reflecting *H1epo- and <epi-> *H1pi-. The simple Mess. aorist
    <des> 'placed', presumably /de:s/, lacks the Greek augment and
    kappatic extension of <éthe:ke>, corresponding instead in form to
    Epic <bê> 'went' (with augment <ébe:>), where Greek has lost the
    3sg. secondary ending -t, and Messapic has apparently substituted
    the primary ending -ti with assibilation to -s (for this subst. cf.
    Lat. <fe:cit>, <siet> (Cato), Old Lat. <fe:ced>, <sied> with sec. -
    d). Loss of initial /h/ in Lusitanian is trivial, and <ipadem> (my
    correction for the v.l. <ifadem> which makes no principled sense)
    can be understood as the 1sg. of the same verb, 'I dedicated' (see
    my analysis of the CdF insc. in Cyb. #58889). Lus.
    <indi> 'thereupon, and then' in my view represents Ill.-Lus. *hindi
    from PIE *H1en-dhi, cognate with Lat. <inde>. Messapic also
    has /a:/-stem datives in <-a> (presumably /-a:/ from */-a:i/, cf.
    Whatmough, op. cit. p. 600), e.g. <Aprodita> in several dedicatory
    inscriptions. Furthermore, Messapic regularly produces a geminate
    when a consonant is followed by the palatal approximant [y] plus a
    vowel; thus Mess. <Orra> on coins, Lat. <Uria>, Grk. <Ouría>, and
    various gentilicia in -CCes from *-Cyos, e.g. <Platorres> nom. sg.
    from *Platorios, <Blatthes> from *Blatios (Whatmough, op. cit., p.
    603). In the CdF text we have <loiminna> following <Iccona>,
    evidently an adjective in the fem. dat. sg. agreeing with it, very
    plausibly from *loiminya:i, and <labbo> (the v.l. <laebo> is
    unlikely since the following word is spelled <comaiam>) can be
    understood as a neut. dat. sg. with instrumental force, earlier
    *labyo:i.

    I take the Lus. forms in -ai, -oi from the text of Lamas de Moledo
    as nomm. pll. with short diphthongs, not datt. sgg. with long ones.

    Lusitanian generalizes /o/ as the connecting vowel of compounds as
    we see in <Trebopala> dat. sg. 'to the Protector of the Village' vel
    sim. and *Toutopalanta:ikos 'of the People of the Palanta (river)'
    extracted from Latinized Celtiberian <Toudopalandaigae> dat. sg.
    (see Cyb. #58889); this vowel is apparently elided in the dat. sg.
    <Trebarune>. Latin <andabata> 'gladiator who fought with an eyeless
    helmet' has been etymologized as borrowed from a Gaulish compound
    *andobatta 'blind beater' but the alteration is unexplained. More
    likely this word is from Messapic with secondary /a/ as the
    connecting vowel. The word could have reached Latin through Old
    Oscan, before the assimilation of -nd- to -nn- occurred in Oscan.
    Gladiatorial games came to the Romans from the Samnites.

    Illyrian accent is inferred primarily from place-names and river-
    names whose modern forms require an ancient accent more recessive
    than that of the Latin penultimate law. In Illyria proper, Albanian
    <Durrës> reflects <Dýrrachium> (although Italian <Durázzo> and
    Serbian <Drac^> require a normalized <Dyrráchium>), <Drisht(i)>
    reflects <Drívastum>, and <Ishm> reflects <Ísamnus>. In Messapia,
    <Bríndisi> requires <Brúndisium>, <Bréntesion>, or the like (several
    ancient forms occur, but the native name must have had initial
    accent). In Picenum, <Pésaro> requires <Písaurum>. Durante (op.
    cit.) argues that the correct name of the river upon which Pesaro
    sits (now the Foglia) was <Ísaurus>, with <Písaurum> a prepositional
    compound using the zero-grade *H1pi-, Ill. *pi-. He cites
    <Parupion> (Geog. Rav.) and <Pasinum> (Plin.) as parallel examples,
    invoking elision of *pi- to *p'-, but the Ill. combining form 'upon-
    , on-' could just as well have been *p- from the unextended zero-
    grade *H1p-. <Terni>, <Téramo>, and <Térmoli> require <Intéramn(i)
    a>, showing that Illyrian accent was not strictly word-initial, but
    immediately preceded the second element of nominal compounds. The
    actual Ill. form was likely *Antérapna from *n.ter-ap-na: '(town)
    between waters', the /in/ and /mn/ being Latinizations.

    Turning now to Venetic we find that inherited long diphthongs are
    preserved as diphthongs in dat. sg. endings, e.g. <Vhrutana.i.> 'to
    Frutana', <Gra.i.ko.i.> 'to Graikos'. Inherited */kw/ remains as
    such in <-kve> 'and'. Forms like <Vhugia> and <Re.i.tiia.i.> show
    no evidence of /y/-induced gemination. Intervocalic */bh/ becomes -
    b-, but initial */bh/ becomes f- (usually written <vh>) as in
    Latin. (Indeed, Venetic treatment of voiced aspirates is so similar
    to that of Latin, which is peculiar within Italic, that I am tempted
    to posit a Venetic substrate for Latin. This is supported by the
    names <Praeneste> and <Venetulani> (Plin.) as well as the use
    of 'free ones' in the sense 'children' (Lat. <li:beri:>, Ven. dat.
    pl. <louderobos>). But I digress.) The accent of <Triéste>
    requires ancient <Tergéste>, and <Odérzo> requires <Opitérgium>, in
    contrast to the accent of the Illyrian type (*Térgeste,
    *Opítergium). Both of these are native Venetic formations based on
    *terg- 'marketplace', which has been borrowed into South Slavic
    (Serbian <trg> 'town square'). In Venetic inscriptions, the noun
    usually written <ekupetaris> (once <ekvopetars>) 'funerary monument,
    commemorative gift, memorial' vel sim. has a syncopated form <ep(p)
    etaris>, indicating a secondary accent on the first, not last
    syllable of the first element of a compound in Venetic. Thus
    Venetic has too many differences from Illyro-Lusitanian languages to
    be included in the group. Now, while Venetian <Trevíso> points to
    <Tarvísium>, Friulian <Tárvis> requires <Tárvisium>. Since this is
    formed like <Brúndisium>, it appears to be an Illyrian toponym whose
    accent was preserved in the East Alps, but not by the Veneti who
    settled on the plain later. Another indication of the priority of
    Illyrian here is the river-name <Plavis>, now <Piave>. Venetic
    maintains inherited /o/ and the river would have been *Plovis (from
    the /o/-grade of *pleu-) if the Veneti had named it.

    Latin <accipenser> 'sturgeon' (which has several variants) can be
    understood with some difficulty as an indirect loan from Illyrian
    through Venetic. Venetian-Paduan-Triestine <kópeze> shows that the
    original accent was on the second syllable, while Vicentine-Fiuman
    <kopéze> reflects a normalized Latin form with penultimate accent.
    Meyer-Lübke takes the correct form as <acupen)ser> (REW 129).
    However, the Hellenized form <akkipé:sios> indicates that the
    geminate was real. The original accent is consistent with an
    Illyrian compound; borrowed into Venetic, the word would not have
    been recognized as a compound, and antepenultimate accent would have
    been acceptable, as in <Tarvísium>. I take the first element as
    Ill. *akka 'river' from *akwa:, the second as *penser(i)s vel sim.
    of undetermined origin but referring to some large animal, so that
    the sturgeon was called 'river-ox' or 'river-beast' or something
    similar. We might expect the connecting vowel to be secondary /a/,
    since Lusitanian as we have seen generalizes /o/. The Romance forms
    however demand *akku-penser(i)s. It appears that in this position
    the Japygian dialect at the head of the Adriatic had /u/ before a
    labial rather than secondary /a/. If my view of <andabata> is
    correct, Messapic had /a/ even before a labial. H. Krahe (IF
    58:143) similarly observed that Illyrian names sometimes have /u/
    before a labial when secondary /a/ from */o/ is to be expected.

    > In developing his theory of Alteuropäisch, Hans Krahe focused too
    > much attention on suffixes, too little attention on the relation
    > between root-grade and suffix, and far too little attention on the
    > semantics of the complete names. His successors have offered some
    > partial remediation, but to my knowledge no revision of the theory
    > has been published which addresses all the problems. What I
    propose
    > is, of course, a radical revision. Resulting from the conflation
    of
    > distinct strata, the Alteuropäisch system as such is a mirage, not
    > the product of a uniform Proto-Western IE as Krahe thought, much
    less
    > of PIE itself as W.P. Schmid insisted.


    ..........................................
    Another site

    Despite its retention of inherited /o/ and final /m/, Lusitanian
    shows striking affinities to Messapic. In the inscription of Cabeço
    das Fráguas, <Iccona> appears to be the name of the goddess
    equivalent to the Gaulish Epona, in the dative case. Thus
    Lusitanian has *ikko- from PIE *H1ek^wo- 'horse', just as Messapic
    and other Q-Illyrian have *(h)ikko-. If we assume that PIE *H1e-
    was reflected in Illyro-Lusitanian as *hi-, we can explain not
    only 'horse' but several other words in Messapic and Lusitanian.
    Mess. <hipades> is equivalent in sense to Grk. <epéthe:ke> 'placed'
    (something) 'upon' (someone), in practice 'dedicated'
    (something) 'to' (a deity). Mess. <hipa-> corresponds to Grk. <epi-
    > if both reflect *H1ep- with different grades and extensions, <hipa-
    > reflecting *H1epo- and <epi-> *H1pi-.


    I will try to link inforamtion.....eupedia or my search engine might be playing up

  23. #123
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    2 out of 3 members found this post helpful.
    As an Albanian I must say this thread makes no sense. I'm sorry, but Albanians most probably have nothing in common with Etruscans. We are an isolated case, if I'd had to speculate, I'd say we have more in common with ancient celtic, than with Etruscan (mind that I'm speculating here).

    Also do mind, you have to be VERY carefull when using words to find similiarties with other languages. There are dialects in Albanian that have words that can't be found in the standardized Albanian or in the other Albanian dialects. Sometimes the dialects differ so much that for example most Albanians in Macedonia won't understand the southern-albanian dialect known as Tosk. This also counts for dialects inside the albanian spoken in Macedonia and Kosova(known as Geg dialect). Even though they are claimed to be the same dialect there are so large differences that sometimes they can't understand eachother. I'm not talking only about simple words, but where words are placed in the sentence too. This somewhat similar to that of today's Danish and Norwegian. Even though it's easy for a Norwegian to read danish and vice-versa most Norwegians have problems understanding oral danish. Also Albanians in macedonia claim to be descendants from paeonians and others from pelasgians (I'd SPECULATE that most albanians don't know the difference between pelasgians and Paeonians, hence I'd say they are talking about the same thing). This might be a reason on the large dialect difference and usage of words here that don't exist anywhere else in the albanian lands. For example a friend of mine told me that his father told him that his grandfather (long before the communist propaganda and what historians call the Albanian National awakening) had told him again that they were descendants of pelasgians. And I seldom hear the Albanians from Macedonia talking about the Illyrians, they seem more to be attached to the dardanians and Paeonians/pelasgian descendancy. I don't claim that these are facts, but these albanians have not been subjected to any albanian or macedonian propaganda (they were outside the communist regimes reach and are even today very isolated from the Macedonians. I travelled through there and it feels like you are driving through a whole other country than macedonia). I'd say that this information has probably circulated for a long time in these communities orally, and there were ruins I'd never heard of probably due to politics(A cancer on history if you ask me).

    Someone has to research the dialects very closely to even start discussing the albanian language as a whole. I don't think anyone has even looked at the albanian talked in Macedonia. There is currently a large debate exactly on this topic about the dialects of Albanian, very similar to the language conflict in Norway in the 19th century. The standardized albanian of today is not a good standard for the spoken albanian today. Why? Because a new book has just been published (few days ago actually) were documents have been researched (some granted by Russia, surprised? not actually since Enver hoxha had strong connections to Moscow at the start of his regime) where it is shown that standard albanian (the one teached in schools) is heavilly skewed towards Tosk-Albanian. Why? because standard albanian was created during the communist regime. Why is this a problem? Even though the idea behind it was good and experts from all the albanian communities tok part, Enver hoxha the dictator changed the original by for example add more words from his dialect, which is Tosk. About 70% of Albanians speak Geg-Albanian and different variation of this.

    In short what I'm saying is that you base your discussion on the Albanian language and history on very little information. You go on comparing words and sentences as if albanian only has one dialect. It has infact 4 dialects that can be VERY different from eachother. Also for you interessted in this topic, look out for a large volume on albanian language/history that is to be published by some Austrians (don't remember their names). I'm hoping this will be as objective/neutral as possible.

    Also there is no ill intent behind this comment, only to give you some information about the language since this is probably the only forums I've seen where serbs, greek and albanians actually discuss things instead of throwing the F-word at eachother.

  24. #124
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    Also I'd like to add that I might be wrong about the relationship between etruscan and albanian (I am no scientist on language). I guess time will tell.

  25. #125
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    Quote Originally Posted by Devils Advocate View Post
    Also I'd like to add that I might be wrong about the relationship between etruscan and albanian (I am no scientist on language). I guess time will tell.
    Well, welcome to Eupedia, Devil's Advocate.

    First off, I must wholeheartedly agree when you say that this thread makes no sense. If you take a look into the posts I made in this thread, it is very obvious. I must admit that although I'm not an expert on Albanian, I can tell you that the general mainstream scientific consensus is that Albanian is an Indo-European language, whereas Etruscan is a non-Indo-European language.

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