Yetos
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Yetos, you're completely confusing things there:
1) You probably mean the Anatolian Hypothesis. It is completely irrelevant in this context. The Anatolian Hypothesis assumes that the Indo-European languages spread during the Neolithic with the spread of agriculture. In no way the Anatolian Hypothesis invalidates the idea of a Proto-Germanic homeland, it merely assumes that the original branching of the Indo-European languages was earlier. The consequence, of course, in the genetic context, would be that the Proto-Indo-Europeans were bearers of Haplogroup G2, and not R1a or R1b, and that Ötzi very likely would have already been a speaker of an Indo-European language. But, this thread, and this discussion about the Veneti is completely irrelevant to this discussion about the origin of the Indo-Europeans because we are talking about the iron age, thousands of years later (regardless of the question wether the Kurgan hypothesis or the Anatolian hypothesis is correct). We are talking about events that occured simultaneously to Greek or Roman written history.
2) You're assuming that Thracian (a Satem languages) somehow "transmuted" (against what in linguistics is deemed possible, since sound laws have no memories) into Proto-Germanic (a Centum language) and then made in a massive migration (which archaeology never recorded) from the mouth of the Danube to northern Germany and Scandinavia. Don't you see how impossible it is what you are proposing?
3) this question is completely irrelevant. No matter what scenario on the origin of the Indo-Europeans is correct, it doesn't change that the Jastorf Culture or the Nordic Bronze Age are the most likely candidates for the speakers of Proto-Germanic.
hmm, if I take the satem-centum well you are maybe weight,
but when did this happened?
My point is that Thracian become Satem when Scythians enter minor Scythia,
on the other hand if I looj the duridanov;s work and compaire it with the Thracian remnants in Greek and in Germanic Dialects I see that we have more centum sounds in Greek than in Germanic, (sgar, καρφ, sharp)
The lack of knowledge in Germanic and Thracian at the time of Troyan wars is an obstackle but the archaiology gives proto or para-Germanic population east of Vistula and North of surely Getan, and from Linguistic we even have Gothic in Crimea, just watch in south Getan in midle Vandal and bastanae and in Norh Guton,
could the satemization of Thracian took place when Scythian enter Scythia minor?
when we check the cultures we see that Daci-Getan culture is not connected with a Pommeranian one (Gothic-germanic spaeking), but when we check the midlle ones prezeworsky and the next we see a balance among la Tene and Pomeranian and Getan (Vandals-Bastanae, Germanic speaking)
so could Thracian and Gothic be one language that split to Satem and Centum after troyan wars, especially when Scythians come near them?
if yes then surely we can explain why south Thracian accept so easy the Slavic and North Gothic turn a more Germanic.
besides we recogn Aesti as Esthonians but could they been the Austi (auster-goths?)
you also gave an answer about 2nd century known Germanic speaking places.
you also see that zarubintsy culture was Germanic or para-Germanic speaking, a culture next to the Getae.
now you even notice that all Germanic or para-Germanic, Ostrogoths, Visigoths, Vandals, Teutones moved West,
so where is the Thracian R1a and R1b that was found in Thracian tombs in Bulgaria?
the heart of once Thracian-Getan today have less R1a and R1b than Greece,
so? did it moved North and West at the known times of the above?
was it exterminate by the same diseases that also Greece suffered?
was it exterminate by Christians like the Greek?
or the Slavic and Bulgarian entrance was not so 'peacefull'
Ok the thread is about Wends so need to expand more, you may delete our posting conversation, if you think is not suitable,
PS
Vandalic language is still under discuss of how Germanic it was, and some claim even that was Slavic, could it been para-gothic or para-getan?