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There's a new massive study on Prehistoric Europe and Anatolian samples, I'll comment on it later in other thread. https://www.cell.com/cell/fulltext/S0092-8674(22)00455-X?_returnURL=https%3A%2F%2Flinkinghub.elsevier.com%2Fretrieve%2Fpii%2FS009286742200455X%3Fshowall%3Dtrue But the first thing...

Y-DNA is the piece of DNA that defines traits subjected to gender dysmorphia, so the chromosome in itself makes people look different, it's logical that the mutations among haplogroups also make a difference.

U3 is mainly West Asian, it's weird for them to pick exactly such a minoritarian haplogroup. Also, gipsy in Spanish is "gitano", some say comes from "egiptano".

Seems like the most relevant stop to pick new mtDNA was in West Asia(Syria, Turkey, the Caucasus)

Rare R1b in the Paleolithic/Mesolithic but in a GoyetQ2 sample, rather than in Villabruna. Seems they got in minority numbers and sneaked into Europe from some unknown source. Then into the different populations. I say this because the coming of R1b into Europe is just a big leap, there's no...

https://www.nature.com/articles/s41559-022-01883-z Check this new study about the end of the LGM in England/Wales. Summary: haplogroup U8 individual had ancestry from the sample GoyetQ2, a Magdalenian sample. While some 1000 years later another U5a human appears with Villabruna ancestry...

I think considering Anatolian agriculturalist ancestry as a source for blond hair is based on nothing... Blondness is clearly a trait from Northern Europe. There's barely none in Turkey or any other area in the Near East. You would have to answer how is it that is has been wiped out so...

Is your father surname Portuguese? Who is that guy, which ancestry he has? You say you matched Central Europeans? Maybe your father has a relative who emigrated or something.

Are you from that city, as many Italian Americans?

One interesting detail about Basques, the only people that preserve relative old languages indigenous to Europe, Is that they have a lot more I2(Native) than G2(Inmigrant agriculturalist). Among Western European men the I2:G haplogroups ratio is way more 'equilibrated'. But for some reason...

Irish and Scottish men look very similar in their behaviour and way of acting and speaking. Even when Irish are invaded by LOWLAND Scots, they feel the difference between them and English men.

Now imagine the same homogeneity but also with women and mtDNA. Like it was just before the European Neolithic...

I don't really think he's R1b, he looks like a pretty average Jewish man to me...

And the maternal haplogroup??? I will guess is a K. Also, where's thw video, isn't in YouTube

The only solution is to arrest and illegalize the NGOs and collaborators. They can't have any sort of help in land. Those travels are imposible to make without all the legal support and transport networks...

How do you respond to scientists that use the presence of R0a, L haplogroups as indication of admixture with foreign people? Because is the main message of all papers that show a change in ancestry, assuming something foreign must have come to the land, and change the gene pool... It's obvious...

I'm saying that it's difficult for a people to just conquer a country as if they were just going for a walk. It's likely that there were already inmigrants in southern Spain, as it is the case with the city of Rome, if you remember the haplogroups of the Imperial era samples...

Backing the last statement. See how around 2200BC there's already R1b in Catalonia, while there isn't in Burgos. But again, this is scarce data, but is what we have from the massive study on Bell Beakers.

I will launch this hypothesis because the data that would allow you to determine things like this, needs to be: 1)available, 2)published, 3)and noticed. But this is the only explanation I can imagine for the presence of R1b in Spain & Portugal without the IndoEuropean languages. A conqueror...

It does... Different ethnic groups have distinct subclades.