Ygorcs
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OMG, why am I having this discussion with you. The palatalization goes in the opposite direction of the satemization process. It's exactly the opposite of what you are saying. Listen Ygorcs, you have no idea, what you are talking about, probably you are learning from the internet right now, and come here to present some chopped knowledge.
Who's talking about satemization? I already made it clear in my first answer, to Jovani, that what happened in the Middle Ages was different in nature, and not only in chronology, from the phonetic change that caused the satemization of some IE branches in the Bronze Age. You're really confused, man. lol
By the way, I reinforce: if what happened was "exactly the opposite of what" I am saying, provide links to articles of professional linguists confirming your criticism. I'm pretty sure you won't find them, unless you look for the "amateur linguists" and their wildly deluded blogs on the internet.
Anyway, my aim was just to give an answer to Jovani's doubts about French. I already did that and also provided the scientific explanation that is given by most linguists of mainstream science. Now he can look this subject up better for himself and find other better evidences and sources to reach his own conclusion. What I definitely couldn't let happen is that he is only informed by someone who has as his own mission the debunking of the entire field of historical linguistics on Indo-European and proving, very scientifically, that Albanian language has an inherent "divine force". LOL. Now go look for something useful to do, because that's exactly what I'm doing right now and have no time to waste with fruitless discussions about fringe speculations.