Angela
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For any one who wants to discuss the things he said.
It's really all in the title. Ancient DNA suggests Steppe migrations spread Indo-European languages
I personally sort of did a double take at this: No Steppe ancestry in aDNA data from Balkans and Anatolia.
So, no steppe from the Balkans into Anatolia either. If true, either Anatolian languages came south over the Caucasus, or the original Pre-or-proto Indo-European arose somewhere in Anatolia, as some of us have been saying for a long time was a possibility.
I wonder if my other suggestion at one time, that Greek came through Anatolia, could be true. That or it came with almost no people. How ironic if that should turn out to be true, given how often the Mycenaens were used to illuminate Indo-European societies: it may be a template for them but they might not be steppe people?
Modified linguistic tree:
http://s22.postimg.org/ayiu8c9gx/tree.png
If it did come from the Caucasus and then across Anatolia, then it's a pincer movement from the Caucasus with one arrow going into the steppe, mixing there with EHG and then moving into Europe, and another arrow going from the Caucasus into the rest of Anatolia, the Balkans, and on to the rest of southern Europe.
If that's the case then Pagani et al may be onto something, and the "Indo- European component" may be some group related to "Caucasians".
Sintashta not an ancestor of Indic peoples (and Andrnovo?). So much for all those statistics predicting they would be... I just love all the pretending going on over at Eurogenes that they never thought any such thing. Has the thread been deleted?
It's really all in the title. Ancient DNA suggests Steppe migrations spread Indo-European languages
I personally sort of did a double take at this: No Steppe ancestry in aDNA data from Balkans and Anatolia.
So, no steppe from the Balkans into Anatolia either. If true, either Anatolian languages came south over the Caucasus, or the original Pre-or-proto Indo-European arose somewhere in Anatolia, as some of us have been saying for a long time was a possibility.
I wonder if my other suggestion at one time, that Greek came through Anatolia, could be true. That or it came with almost no people. How ironic if that should turn out to be true, given how often the Mycenaens were used to illuminate Indo-European societies: it may be a template for them but they might not be steppe people?
Modified linguistic tree:
http://s22.postimg.org/ayiu8c9gx/tree.png
If it did come from the Caucasus and then across Anatolia, then it's a pincer movement from the Caucasus with one arrow going into the steppe, mixing there with EHG and then moving into Europe, and another arrow going from the Caucasus into the rest of Anatolia, the Balkans, and on to the rest of southern Europe.
If that's the case then Pagani et al may be onto something, and the "Indo- European component" may be some group related to "Caucasians".
Sintashta not an ancestor of Indic peoples (and Andrnovo?). So much for all those statistics predicting they would be... I just love all the pretending going on over at Eurogenes that they never thought any such thing. Has the thread been deleted?