Legiter
Junior Member
- Messages
- 3
- Reaction score
- 0
- Points
- 0
- Location
- Florida, United States
- Ethnic group
- English, Welsh/Scottish, Spanish, and Italian
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- R1b L21
- mtDNA haplogroup
- R0
If I may speak: Angela you are quite wrong. The definition of Semite is as follows: "a member of any of the peoples who speak or spoke a Semitic language, including in particular the Jews and Arabs." According to Google, which is where I obtained this definition, this is what Antisemitism means: "hostility to or prejudice against Jews." If this is the case, then either Google is wrong, and Antisemitism must also apply to other Semites, including Persians and Arabs, or Google is correct and Arabs and Persians are not Semitic people (this also includes other Semitic people throughout Western Asia and Africa). We obviously know that this is not the case. Also, Christianity is not inherently 'Antisemitic'. In fact, I find it awfully ignorant of you to label Christianity as Antisemitic, even though the religion was started by people of the Levant (Judahites, Israelites, etc.), and the fact that the Apostles of Christ, with a few exceptions, were predominately of Semitic origin. According to the true definition of the word. Also consider, that it was Christian leaders, who saved condemned Antisemitism (Pope Pius XI condemned the Nazis), and Pope Pius XII saved Jews who were being persecuted by the Nazis. As a right wing, authoritarian and Catholic Monarchist, I would say that only rebuke the Jews for their satanic religion, but not for their race. No where in the history of Medieval Europe, did any person ever advocate hatred for Semitic people, because of their race. Sure, they recognized racial differences, and developed certain systems to preserve their people, but the Church has ALWAYS condemned hatred of any race.