there would have to be more R1a if this was the case.
Why is that?
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there would have to be more R1a if this was the case.
Another thing need explaining ...............since the northern part of the adriatic sea did not exist and Italy and the balkans where joined as far south as modern Ancona, then why is there very little of this marker in the northern and central Italy if its a balkan marker?
Another thing need explaining ...............since the northern part of the adriatic sea did not exist and Italy and the balkans where joined as far south as modern Ancona, then why is there very little of this marker in the northern and central Italy if its a balkan marker?
Where from did you get the data about the "exact" age?
I think if not Paleolithic continuity then the best explanation is that it was spread by the Gothic tribes. M26 being Visigoth, M423 being Ostrogoth. If you know the history of the Goths well you know that they migrated en masse from Far Eastern Europe south of the Danube to escape the Huns, eventually settling in Pannonia. This matches perfectly the hot spots of I2a1 in the Balkans (South of the Danube, in the Ostrogothic Kingdom we find the highest frequencies of I2a1). It also explains I2a1 in western Ukraine North of the Danube.
We know that I2a1b existed in Sweden (Gotaland) in the Mesolithic (Motala), the history of the Goths states that they migrated out of Scandinavia through Eastern Europe and established a kingdom in Dacia (Now Western Ukraine/Romania north of the Danube). This matches the Distribution of I2a1 perfectly.
Dr. Ken Nordtvedt mentioned, a while ago:
I2a2a Dinaric is just too young to not have been the result of a sudden expansion not much more than 2000 years ago.
It is well testified, that 2000 years ago, the Vistula area were still part of Germania. And the Wielbark culture, (mainly associated with the Goths, as well as the Rugii, Heruli, Gepids and other Germanic tribes) appeared also in the Vistula area about the same time period like the haplogroup I2a2a Dinaric. The Wielbark culture also had a sudden expansion out of the Vistula, not much more than 2000 years ago... The first movments of the slavic people, appear centuries later.
Moving slowly from the southeast to the northwest of Europe. (Peter Heather, “Barbarians and Empires”). But the Gothic people moved the other way around, exactly the same way like the I2a2a Dinarics in reference to the spread map from Dr. Ken Nordtvedt. Concerning I2a2a Dinaric, no ethnics of people, in that number, at that time and particular place, could come into question, other than the Germanics and Gothic tribes. This is the only plausible explanation. The Goths as well as the I2a2a Dinarics, demonstrating a huge sudden expansion at the same time, moving in the same directions into the southeast of Europe.
I can not see anything slavic in this group, because of the relationship between I2a2a Dinarics, I2a2a Disles and I2a2a Isles in Britain.
Most I2a2a Dinaric members, are from Pomerania and the Ukraine.
Correlation between I2a1b and Slavic populations in the Balkans is very high.
Gothic language can't be found in the Balkans, not even in traces.
I2a1b has been the most numerous haplogroup in the Balkans for centuries. If it is of Gothic origin, how come several Paleo-Balkan languages have survived Slavic invasion but Gothic was clinically swept away?
The way I see it there are strong arguments against every theory which explains I2a1b origin in the Balkans, except the theory of Slavic expansion.
So maybe someone should try to tell us, what is wrong about the Slavic theory? WHY NOT SLAVS?
same way as illyrian language is missing, celt language in the alps, venetic language in Italy, Raetic language in the alp, trojan language in anatolia etc etc ...........I do not see your point!
Exactly, even the age of I2a-Dinaric goes in hand with age of Slavic expansion.Correlation between I2a1b and Slavic populations in the Balkans is very high.
Gothic language can't be found in the Balkans, not even in traces.
I2a1b has been the most numerous haplogroup in the Balkans for centuries. If it is of Gothic origin, how come several Paleo-Balkan languages have survived Slavic invasion but Gothic was clinically swept away?
The way I see it there are strong arguments against every theory which explains I2a1b origin in the Balkans, except the theory of Slavic expansion.
So maybe someone should try to tell us, what is wrong about the Slavic theory? WHY NOT SLAVS?
"And again correlation between I2a1b and Slavic populations is huge"
What do you mean?
The language survived as a domestic language in the Iberian peninsula (modern Spain and Portugal) as late as the 8th century, and in the lower Danube area
The reconstructed Proto-Slavic language features several apparent borrowed words from East Germanic (presumably Gothic).[12]
In the Balkans, all nationalities which have more than 16% I2a1b use Slavic language.
And opposite from that, all that have less than 16% are not Slavic (In the Balkans).
Well Romania has more than 16% I2a1b and does not use a Slavic language.
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